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2 votes
2 answers
573 views

Is Our Lord Ever Referred to as "Jesus" by His Enemies?

Our Lord is often referred to as Jesus by the writers of the Gospels; however, I cannot think of an instance where He is referred to, or called, Jesus by any of His enemies (or strangers). Can anyone ...
user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
193 views

How does Catholic Church explain the use of singular word “name” in the Prayer of Sign of the Cross?

We see Jesus' instructions to the disciples at Mt 28:19: Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit. This ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
139 views

Is there any relationship between Aquinas teaching on the analogical knowledge of God and Christ teaching in parables?

Is there any relationship between Aquinas teaching on the analogical knowledge of God and Christ teaching in parables (ie. via analogies)?
Thom's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
152 views

Whether beatific vision gives us univocal knowledge of God?

Here on this world, we can have only analogous (analogy of proper proportionality) knowledge of God. When someone attains the beatific vision, does he have univocal knowledge of God? If not, is ...
Thom's user avatar
  • 2,039
2 votes
0 answers
118 views

Are there any Indian Christian traditions (Liturgical or scriptural) where God is referred to as "Brahman"?

The title sums up the question. The reason I ask is that historically Catholics have placed a heavy emphasis on inculturation when evangelising new cultures. Rather than introducing western words for ...
TheIronKnuckle's user avatar
7 votes
4 answers
268 views

In Catholic theology is Yehovah the Father or all three persons?

When reading the Hebrew scriptures and one encounters a reference to Yehovah, does that map in the NT to the Father? Or to the Father, Son and Holy Ghost? For example, in this passage can we be ...
Ruminator's user avatar
  • 1,954
2 votes
1 answer
114 views

What, according to Catholic Church, does the name "Son of Man" signify?

We see Jesus referring to Himself as "Son of Man" in all four Gospels (e.g., in Matthew 8:20, 9:6, 11:19; Mark 10:45, 13:26; Luke 5:24, 6:22, 7:34; and John 1:51, 3:14, 6:27, etc.). What, according to ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
15 votes
2 answers
2k views

Does the divine name YHWH (יַהְוֶה) apply equally to all Persons of the Trinity? (Catholic/Nicene perspective)

According to the Catholic Church (and other Nicene Churches), does the divine name YHWH (יַהְוֶה) apply equally to all Persons of the Sacred Trinity?
AthanasiusOfAlex's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
776 views

What is the Catholic view of what it meant for Jesus to be "called" Immanuel?

Matthew 1:23 (NIV) says: “The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel (which means “God with us”). (Matthew 1:23, NIV) But, nowhere in the Gospels is Jesus ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
9 votes
3 answers
873 views

What is the Catholic explanation as to why God has revealed himself in "male" terms?

The Catholic Church teaches that God is neither man nor woman. CCC 370 In no way is God in man's image. He is neither man nor woman. God is pure spirit in which there is no place for the ...
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