Questions tagged [gospel-of-john]

An account of the public ministry of Jesus according to his disciple/apostle John

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
0 votes
0 answers
3 views

Who authored John? [migrated]

I’ve heard that it has been referred to as John as the man who wrote it. But which John? Polycrates of Ephesus claims that the Beloved Disciple was someone named John who was a Temple priest and died ...
Thejesusdude's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
235 views

Equivalence of "to Feed" and "to Govern" in Ancient Biblical Language

According to Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma (in reference to John 21:15-17): "Feed" in ancient and biblical language means, in its application to human beings, rule or govern (cf. Acts 20:...
DDS's user avatar
  • 2,939
1 vote
0 answers
35 views

Does Jn 3:8 have a larger interpretation with reference to Gifts of Holy Spirit?

In Jn 3:8, we see Jesus equating those born of the Holy Spirit to the wind which blows where it likes. No one knows where the wind comes from and where it goes to. Jesus was referring to the place of ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
170 views

How do Lutherans interpret John 5:24?

In John 5:24 (NET) Jesus says (emphasis added): I tell you the solemn truth, the one who hears my message and believes the one who sent me has eternal life and will not be condemned, but has crossed ...
Dan's user avatar
  • 1,853
7 votes
4 answers
377 views

How do Jehovah's Witnesses reconcile John 1:3 with Colossians 1:15-16?

This question asks and answers the addition of the word "other" in the NWT of Colossians 1:15-16: 15 He is the image of the invisible God,the firstborn of all creation;16 because by means ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
  • 14.8k
2 votes
3 answers
107 views

What's the moral of John 12:3-8? (Mary anointing Jesus's feet)

John 12:3-8: 3 "Mary then took a pound of very expensive perfume of pure nard, and anointed the feet of Jesus and wiped His feet with her hair; and the house was filled with the fragrance of the ...
The Wisdom Seeker's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
349 views

Is the Bible God?

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God According to John 1:1, "The Word is god". We all know that the Bible is the word of God; therefore, is John 1:...
John's user avatar
  • 155
0 votes
2 answers
83 views

Did Jesus work miracles before Cana?

We read in Jn 3:11 that the miracle Jesus worked at Cana was first of the signs that revealed his glory. That would imply that the first miracle done by Jesus in public , was at Cana. But is it not ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
145 views

Why is it declared that Jesus was fully God while on earth when he did not have all attributes of God?

The common belief is that Jesus was fully God and fully man; that is, 100% God and 100% man. In John 17:5, Jesus asks the Father to return his glory as he had before he became flesh. So, his glory was ...
O.J.'s user avatar
  • 139
5 votes
6 answers
269 views

How can trinitarians profess co-equality when Jesus said the Father was greater?

Trinitarians typically believe that the persons of the Trinity are coequal. How do they explain Jesus' statement that his Father was greater? Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come ...
Biblasia's user avatar
  • 1,655
-1 votes
2 answers
112 views

Did Jesus give monetary help to the poor?

In John 12:1-6 we see an account of Jesus getting anointed at Bethany , and Judas Iscariot commenting that the expenses could better have gone to the poor. The Evangelist remarks that Judas was in ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
37 views

Do Christians have the power to condemn?

It is recorded in the Gospel of John that after Jesus's death and resurrection, he appeared to the disciples and said the following: On the evening of that first day of the week, when the disciples ...
nick012000's user avatar
  • 1,043
1 vote
1 answer
61 views

Was Jn 19:12-13 intended to be a prophecy on the Day of Judgement?

We read in Jn 19:12-13 (NRSVCE): From then on Pilate tried to release him, but the Jews cried out, “If you release this man, you are no friend of the emperor. Everyone who claims to be a king sets ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
7 votes
2 answers
2k views

Under the laws of which regime was Jesus sentenced to death on the cross?

We read in Matt 27 how Jesus was put to trial before the Roman Governor: Then Pilate said to him, “Do you not hear how many accusations they make against you?” But he gave him no answer, not even to ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
0 votes
3 answers
309 views

Self-Referencing by the Gospel Writers

Aside from the literary prologue of Luke, are there any instances where any of the four Gospel writers refer to themselves by the personal pronoun I? It seems, for example, that in the case of the ...
DDS's user avatar
  • 2,939
1 vote
1 answer
673 views

Is there a deeper meaning for the depiction of Jesus' head tilted towards his right on the Crucifix?

We read in Jn 19:30 (KJKV): When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost. Lealani Acosta and her colleagues scoured the ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
-2 votes
4 answers
130 views

According to Chalcedonian Trinitarians, did Thomas - a devout Jew - believe God had died at John 20?

At John 20, Thomas initially refuses to believe other disciples' accounts of Jesus having been raised from the dead. When Jesus appears to Thomas, Thomas famously exclaims "My Lord and my God!&...
Only True God's user avatar
-1 votes
1 answer
73 views

According to Chalcedonian Trinitarians, why did Jesus not mention himself at John 4:23?

John 4:23 has Jesus saying "But a time is coming and has now come when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and in truth, for the Father is seeking such as these to worship Him.&...
Only True God's user avatar
1 vote
3 answers
245 views

Why not "Word is God"? Why past tense? Does it mean word was god initially but not anymore?

John says that in the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Why not "Word is God" - in present tense (because the scriptures are still valid)? It looks ...
Mashup Transmitter's user avatar
1 vote
3 answers
729 views

Why does John the Evangelist NOT record Jesus' response to Pilate's query on Truth?

We read in John 18:37-38 how Pilate poses an inquisitive question on Truth to Jesus : Pilate asked him, “So you are a king?” Jesus answered, “You say that I am a king. For this I was born, and for ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
17 views

Has Sozzini's 'Brevis explicatio in primum Johannis caput' been translated into English?

Lelio Sozzini (uncle of Socinus) wrote Brevis explicatio in primum Johannis caput, a commentary on the meaning of the Logos in John 1:1–15, and it was published in 1562. Sozzini held that the '...
Only True God's user avatar
4 votes
2 answers
167 views

Which nature of Christ said “My Father is greater than I” (John 14:28)?

Jesus said, “My Father is greater than I” (John 14:28). It would be a ridiculous thing for a mere human being to say this. This statement, therefore, seems to argue against a ‘mere man’ interpretation ...
Andries's user avatar
  • 1,642
2 votes
2 answers
156 views

What is the earliest commentary on John 20:28?

Thomas' statement at John 20:28 "Thomas replied, “My Lord and my God!”" Ἀπεκρίθη Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ “Ὁ Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός μου.” has been the subject of significantly different ...
Only True God's user avatar
3 votes
3 answers
71 views

Were the apostles alone in John 20:19-23?

In John 20:23, it stands written: If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven them; if you withhold forgiveness from any, it is withheld.” I've noticed in the Cambridge Bible for Schools and ...
Dan's user avatar
  • 1,853
4 votes
3 answers
617 views

How do Trinitarians respond to this contradiction of dogmatic 'oneness'?

I and the Father are one. John 10:30 As numerous posts here variably document, here is one extreme example. the Lord Jesus Christ, who existed before Abraham was born, was stating that he and the ...
steveowen's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
155 views

What is the Biblical basis for the logos being only the means for creation? [closed]

All things came into being through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into being that has come into being John 1:3 Are we given any indication that the logos made anything? Or is it ...
steveowen's user avatar
6 votes
3 answers
103 views

Although the N.T. often speaks of Jesus as the Son of God, what's significant about the way the Apostle John uses that title?

He refers to the Son of Man 12 times in his gospel, but Son of God (or its equivalent) 32 times. The synoptic gospels collectively use the term Son of God 36 times in all three accounts. This means ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 27.1k
3 votes
2 answers
331 views

How do non-Trinitarian denominations perceive supposed contradictions between John 1:1 vs John 1:14?

John 1:14 is generally used to say that "God" became "flesh" based on the understanding that "the Word" addressed in John 1:1 refers to God. However, other texts of ...
Biblasia's user avatar
  • 1,655
0 votes
6 answers
763 views

Do any Trinitarian denominations teach from John 1 with, 'In the beginning was Jesus'?

We all know what it says, many can recite the first 3 verse of John without hesitation. In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with ...
steveowen's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
34 views

What is the earliest known argument that 1 John 1:1's 'beginning' refers to a new beginning?

1 John 1:1's 'beginning' is often linked to John 1:1's 'beginning'. What is the earliest known argument that 1 John 1:1's use of 'beginning' refers not to a Genesis beginning but a new beginning, ...
Only True God's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
119 views

What is the earliest known argument that John 1:1's 'beginning' refers to a new beginning?

Laelius Socinus argued in Brevis explicatio in primum Johannis caput that the "beginning" (arche) in John 1:1 refers not to a Genesis beginning, but rather a new beginning related to Jesus' ...
Only True God's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
324 views

What was the reason for Jesus choosing the purification jars for his miracle at Cana? [closed]

We read in John 2 how Jesus performed his first miracle : On the third day there was a wedding in Cana of Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there. Jesus and his disciples had also been invited ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
479 views

According to those who hold that the Word at John 1:1 is a person, how do they explain 1 John 1:1 using 'that' instead of 'who' for the Word?

John 1:1 is In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Many Christians believe that the Word here = a person (Jesus, or the second person of the Trinity), and ...
Only True God's user avatar
0 votes
4 answers
196 views

If a non-believer asks a Trinitarian Christian to explain John 14:10, how might the latter oblige?

We see Jesus telling in John 14:10 the following: Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in Me? The words I say to you, I do not speak on My own. Instead, it is the Father ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
-1 votes
1 answer
67 views

Did Mary Magdalene understand at the garden that Jesus had risen from the dead?

Have a look at the different versions of Jn 20:16 relating to the post-Resurrection appearance of Jesus to Mary Magdalene : Jesus said to her, Mary! Turning around she said to Him in Hebrew, Rabboni!—...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
32 views

What according to Catholic scholars, was the reason behind Nathaniel's prejudice against Nazareth?

We read in Jn 1:43 -46 of the impulsive reaction of Nathaniel who is told of Jesus : The next day Jesus decided to go to Galilee. He found Philip and said to him, “Follow me"...Philip found ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
95 views

The poor you will always have with you

In John Chapter 12 verses 1-8 Jesus says the famous quote "... The poor you will always have with you, but you will not always have Me", or in the original greek: τοὺς (the) πτωχοὺς (poor) ...
Display name's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
94 views

For those who hold that John 1:1 is about a Genesis beginning, how do they explain the light coming after life?

In Genesis 1, light is first (1:3), then there is life (1:11). In John 1, life seems to come first (1:4a), but that life then is the light of men (1:4b). How do those who hold to a Genesis beginning ...
Only True God's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
117 views

Is there a name for the idea that Jesus takes away the sin of the world by causing those who abide in him to sin less and be more righteous?

1 John 3:5-6 is 5 But you know that Christ appeared to take away sins, and in Him there is no sin. 6 No one who remains in Him keeps on sinning. No one who continues to sin has seen Him or known Him. ...
Only True God's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
71 views

What are the arguments in favour of the 'beginning' at John 1:1 being the old beginning?

The standard reading of John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." is that the beginning - ἀρχῇ (archē) - refers to the old beginning, i.e., ...
Only True God's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
515 views

What are the arguments in favour of the 'beginning' at John 1:1 being the new beginning?

The standard reading of John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." is that the beginning - ἀρχῇ (archē) - refers to the old beginning, i.e., ...
Only True God's user avatar
1 vote
3 answers
1k views

How do Trinitarians explain that Jesus himself claims He is a man who has heard things from God at John 8:40?

In Acts 2:22, St. Peter says "Fellow Israelites, listen to this! Jesus of Nazareth was a man who had God's approval." I have asked about this particular line here. Similarly, Jesus himself ...
Only True God's user avatar
4 votes
0 answers
51 views

According to those who believe the Son only "notionally existed" prior to his birth, how much of the Word became flesh?

It has been clearly asserted by Biblical Unitarians that Jesus Christ had no actual existence anywhere prior to his birth in Bethlehem. It has also been clearly asserted that Scriptures which appear ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
  • 14.8k
2 votes
1 answer
108 views

Why did Jesus in John 14:28 say he "was going to the Father?"

So I've got a Muslim person trying to prove their religion through the Bible. To them, Jesus wasn't crucified but he immediately ascended. That Muslim person says in John 14:28, Jesus says "I am ...
Elmatador DeAngel's user avatar
6 votes
2 answers
981 views

How do those who interpret John 10:30 as a claim to full divine equality by Jesus also interpret John 10:29, which says the Father is greater?

John 10:30 is a common proof-text for Trinitarians and others who assert Jesus' equality with the Father. It is "I and the Father are one." at which the hostile Jews around him pick up ...
Only True God's user avatar
-1 votes
1 answer
145 views

Have any prominent theologians or Biblical academics argued that the original Eucharistic meals contained psychoactive properties beyond normal wine?

Brian Muraresku's The Immortality Key argues that the original Eucharistic meal contained psychoactive ingredients that facilitated certain kinds of experiences. He cites in particular John 6:55 &...
Only True God's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
71 views

What are our options for how Jesus pre-existed at John 8:58?

There are multiple options for how to translate John 8:58, but a typical one is "before Abraham was born, I am!" (Berean Study Bible) Although 'ego eimi' used in this sort of grammatical ...
Only True God's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
1k views

How do Trinitarians who argue the 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 ought to be translated 'I AM' explain the lack of reactions to the same phrase?

At John 8:58, Jesus says "Before Abraham was born, I am the one." (REV) The Greek is πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί Because the Jews then pick up stones, some Trinitarians believe there is ...
Only True God's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
54 views

According to Trinitarians, does Tuggy get Jesus' argument at John 10:33-36 right?

Dale Tuggy, a Biblical Unitarian, more formally presents Jesus' argument at John 10:34-36. "34 Jesus replied, “Is it not written in your Law: ‘I have said you are gods’? 35 If he called them ...
Only True God's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
2k views

How do you say "My Lord and my God" in Aramaic or Hebrew?

Thomas said, "O Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός μου" (koine Greek), "My Lord and my God" (English). What would he have said in Aramaic (Hebrew?) in John 20:28? Would it relate to Adonai and ...
Jim Gaidis's user avatar

1
2 3 4 5
7