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Questions tagged [1-john]

First New Testament epistle of John, countering docetism

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6 answers
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What is "sin that leads to death" in 1 John 5:16?

1 John 5:16 (NIV) If you see any brother or sister commit a sin that does not lead to death, you should pray and God will give them life. I refer to those whose sin does not lead to death. There is ...
Richard's user avatar
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17 votes
1 answer
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What effect did the 1897 decree regarding the Johannine Comma have on Catholic scholarship?

The Comma Johanneum, found in some versions of 1 John 5:7–8, such as the KJV, is a disputed text that has been used since at least the Middle Ages to defend trinitarian doctrine. Scholars now widely ...
Nathaniel is protesting's user avatar
10 votes
2 answers
2k views

How does one test the spirits and identify false preachers?

The Word of God says, Dear friends, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world (1 John 4:1) Many ...
Paddington's user avatar
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9 votes
2 answers
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How do Calvinists interpret 1 John 2:2 in light of Limited Atonement?

1 John 2:2 (ESV) He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world. Understanding the "ours" as referring to the universal church of believers, ...
Joshua's user avatar
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8 votes
1 answer
421 views

How did Swedenborg interpret 1 John 2:2: "He is the propitiation for our sins"?

Many Christians believe that Jesus died to appease the anger of God. One reason for this is 1 John 2:2, which says: And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the ...
Cannabijoy's user avatar
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7 votes
1 answer
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Is 1 John 5:7-8 (the Comma Johanneum) a Latin corruption?

Is the biblical passage at 1 John 5:7-8 (the Comma Johanneum) a Latin corruption that has entered the Greek manuscript tradition?
cuddlyable3's user avatar
6 votes
4 answers
3k views

How does Free Grace Theology reconcile 1 John?

My understanding of Free Grace Theology is that it separates the believers salvation from their sanctification, in that sanctification is not the necessary result of salvation. It separates the call ...
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5 votes
2 answers
534 views

Can a Jehovah's Witness say that they know they have eternal life?

John's Gospel is written so that the reader may believe that Jesus is the Son of God and may have life in that name" Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of the disciples, which are ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
5 votes
3 answers
2k views

What spirit(s) is referred to in 1 John 4?

1 John 4:1-6 (NIV): Dear friends, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. 2 This is how you ...
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5 votes
4 answers
1k views

Why does 1 John say Christians are unable to sin? [closed]

The verse in question, 1 John 3:4 (HCSB) Everyone who commits sin also breaks the law; sin is the breaking of law. You know that He was revealed so that He might take away sins, and there is no sin ...
Premier Bromanov's user avatar
4 votes
2 answers
380 views

How do the 3 Protestant traditions deal with the two types of sin mentioned in 1 John 5:16-17?

When reading the letters of John the other day I was struck by 1 John 5:16-17: ¹⁶ If anyone sees his brother committing a sin not leading to death, he shall ask, and God[a] will give him life—to ...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
107 views

Can a Roman Catholic know that they have eternal life? [duplicate]

If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater: for this is the witness of God which he hath testified of his Son. He that believeth on the Son of God hath the witness in himself: he ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
428 views

Whom does Jesus refer to as 'infants' at Luke 10:21?

At Luke 10:21 we see : At that same hour Jesus rejoiced in the Holy Spirit and said, “I thank you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and the ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
98 views

What is the Catholic understanding of what "God is Love" means according to the four senses of scripture?

Until reading Dr. Peter Kreeft's Socratic Logic chapter on definitions, I had no idea that "God is Love" (1 John 4:16) is a metaphor. Quote from Section 4 (The limits of definition) page ...
Peter Turner's user avatar
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2 votes
2 answers
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Does the Book of Mormon (& LDS doctrine) pass the test found in 1 John 4:2 as the true spirit of God?

Do Mormons agree that part of their trust in the book of Mormon (and the LDS church doctrine) is that it agrees with the following scriptures as a kind of litmus test is discerning the truth from the ...
David's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
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Is there a name for the idea that Jesus takes away the sin of the world by causing those who abide in him to sin less and be more righteous?

1 John 3:5-6 is 5 But you know that Christ appeared to take away sins, and in Him there is no sin. 6 No one who remains in Him keeps on sinning. No one who continues to sin has seen Him or known Him. ...
Only True God's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
348 views

Is John 3:23 contradicted by 1 John 4:5-6? Does the born again experience happen by the Holy Spirit or by both the word of God/Gospel and Holy Spirit? [closed]

Is John 3:23 contradicted by 1 John 4:5-6? From this comes following: does the born again experience happen by the Holy Spirit or by both the word of God/Gospel and Holy Spirit? And he said unto them,...
alvoutila's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
487 views

According to those who hold that the Word at John 1:1 is a person, how do they explain 1 John 1:1 using 'that' instead of 'who' for the Word?

John 1:1 is In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Many Christians believe that the Word here = a person (Jesus, or the second person of the Trinity), and ...
Only True God's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
6k views

1 John 5:16 "you don't need to pray for that"?

1 John 5:16 If anyone sees his brother committing a sin not leading to death, he shall ask, and God will give him life—to those who commit sins that do not lead to death. There is sin that ...
karma's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
567 views

What are the arguments in favour of the 'beginning' at John 1:1 being the new beginning?

The standard reading of John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." is that the beginning - ἀρχῇ (archē) - refers to the old beginning, i.e., ...
Only True God's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
299 views

How to reconcile the Council of Trent and the Apostle John regarding the post-baptismal presence of sin?

I am struggling to reconcile a very strong statement from the Council of Trent pronouncing anathema with a very strong statement from the Apostle John pronouncing deception and lie. Both statements ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
204 views

How do dispensationalists understand the "antichrists" and "last hour" in 1 John 2:18?

It seems that a large contingent of Christians believe the antichrist will come soon or at some future time and set in motion the eschatological "end times." How, then, can dispensationalists ...
James Rush's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
1k views

What is the discerning of spirits in 1 Cor. 12:10? [closed]

What is the discerning of spirits in 1 Cor. 12:10? It seems that it is a bit different from the trying of spirits in 1 John 4:1 as there John gives a particular method as to how to try them and find ...
brilliant's user avatar
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1 vote
0 answers
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What is the earliest known argument that 1 John 1:1's 'beginning' refers to a new beginning?

1 John 1:1's 'beginning' is often linked to John 1:1's 'beginning'. What is the earliest known argument that 1 John 1:1's use of 'beginning' refers not to a Genesis beginning but a new beginning, ...
Only True God's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
749 views

What are the objections to Newton's critique of 1 John 5:7 and 1 Timothy 3:16?

In "An Historical Account of Two Notable Corruptions of Scripture", Isaac Newton argued that 1 John 5:7 was a corruption of the early church and did not appear in the original Greek ...
user7348's user avatar
  • 253
0 votes
2 answers
109 views

Has anybody ever seen God? [duplicate]

My friend is a very strong Atheist and has been now for nearly three and a half years and one of the contradictions he gives are between 1 John 4:12 where it says that no man has seen God but in ...
user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
403 views

1 John 5:3 — What are "his commandments?" and how are they "not heavy?" (Protestantism)

1 John 5:3 (DRB) For this is the charity of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not heavy. Cf. Mt. 11:30. Question According to Protestantism, to what commandments does "...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
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1 John 3:20 what does it mean "He knows everything" according to Calvinist Single Predestination?

This question as a continuation of my question here, because the question before is not "tight". 1 John 3:20 For God is greater than our hearts, and He knows everything. Trying to put my ...
karma's user avatar
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0 votes
2 answers
238 views

What does Liberate 2014/Tullian mean by 'One Way Love'?

My question is prompted by the Liberate 2014 Conference and the concept of One Way Love. There's also a book by a pastor Tullian Tchividjian called "One Way Love". What does Liberate 2014/Tullian ...
david brainerd's user avatar
0 votes
0 answers
30 views

Do we know definitively in what order were the letters of James, Peter, John and Jude written?

In the New Testament, in addition to the four Gospels of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John, The Acts of the Apostles, and the Epistles written by Paul, there are other letters (epistles) written by James, ...
Ron Evans's user avatar
-1 votes
2 answers
40 views

Was St. John referring to schismatic bishops in describing the Antichrist in 1 John 2:18-19? [duplicate]

18 Children, it is the last hour; and just as you heard that antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have appeared; from this we know that it is the last hour. 19 They went out from us, but ...
jong ricafort's user avatar
-2 votes
3 answers
4k views

John 3:16 vs 1 John 2:15

Why does the bible say in John 3:16 that "For God so loved the world" but 1 John 2:15 says "Love not the world". If God Himself loved the world, why shouldn't we love the world?
Artios Artios's user avatar