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Because the Bible teaches that God made men directly in His image but women indirectly (1 Timothy 2:13) and that God transcends all moral judgment (Romans 9:20), what does this imply about the ability of men to receive forgiveness, as compared to women?

I weigh answers from the Church Fathers the highest, preferably Latin and Greek fathers during the first millennia.

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    You should add a denominational specification. As it stands, the question is very open to opinion-based answers
    – jaredad7
    Aug 11 at 22:53
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    "Because the Bible teaches that God made men directly in His image but women indirectly" I don't know any denominations that would teach this!
    – curiousdannii ♦
    Aug 11 at 22:59
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    The question is still open to opinion-based answers, and, as @curiousdannii points out, most of those opinions are likely to be "your question is wrong." I've voted to close, but I would highly suggest targeting this to a denomination that teaches the premise, or refocus to ask why mainstream Christianity would teach that this premise is not sound doctrine.
    – jaredad7
    Aug 12 at 5:17
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    Adam was first formed, then Eve makes no comment on 'direct' or 'indirect' image presentation. The question is based on an opinion without any evidence.
    – Nigel J
    Aug 12 at 13:35
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    On the basis of DJClayworth's biblical answer, I wonder why you say you "weigh answers from the Church Fathers the highest." Which Church Fathers? Those from the first and second centuries? Or later? Perhaps you should edit your question to provide more detail, otherwise the question may be (regretably) closed.
    – Lesley
    Aug 13 at 16:59

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The foundational point of this question is incorrect. Men and women are both created in the image of God, and there is no mention of "directly" or "indirectly". The "order" of creation specified in 1 Tim 2:13 does not mention "direct" or "indirect". Because something happens second that does not mean it is lesser than the thing that happens first, any more than the New Covenant is lesser than the Old, or Isaiah is lesser than Obadiah. Your presumption is directly contradicted by the Bible:

So God created mankind in his own image, in the image of God he created them; male and female he created them. Genesis 1:27

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  • What about Lot's Wife? (Luke 17:32) She became an inanimate object... but something tells me this wouldn't have happened if her gender differed (Jesus refers to her by her feminine title of "wife") What do you think?
    – Fomalhaut
    Aug 12 at 23:05
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    I'm not going to discuss an entirely different question in comments. You've been on this site long enough to know that's not how it works.
    – DJClayworth
    Aug 13 at 2:30
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    @HolyKnowledge 'Something tells me' . . . . . Can you be more specific about your source of knowledge, please ?
    – Nigel J
    Aug 13 at 8:31
  • @NigelJ It comes from pattern matching. I saw that Jesus did not reveal her name but referred to her by a gendered title ("wife") so this must have been a significant detail in His eyes regarding her strange and alien fate.
    – Fomalhaut
    Aug 13 at 9:14
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    Please don't use comments to discuss things not mentioned in either the question or the answer.
    – DJClayworth
    Aug 13 at 20:04

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