So why did Jesus literally say at John 10:30, "I and My Father We are one?" John 10:27-29, Jesus says the following. "My sheep hear My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me; vs28, and I give eternal life to them, and they shall never perish; and no one shall snatch them out of My hand. vs29, "My Father who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father's hand."
Jesus is clearly saying that the sheep are equally safe in His hand and in His Father's hand. The power of the Son is equal to that of the Father, and while this is the contextual point of reference, much more is implied.
Jesus asserted the essential unity of the Father and the Son in the word "one" (hen). It is a neuter number to indicate equality of essence, attributes, design, will, and work.
Jesus distinguishes the "I" from the "Father" and uses the plural verb "are" denoting "we are." Thus these words separate the persons within the Godhead, but "one" asserts their unity of essence or nature as identical.
The Jews understood what Jesus was claiming because at John 10:24 they ask, "How long will You keep us in suspense? If You are the Christ, tell us plainly." Jesus does not say "I am Christ," but "I and my Father, We are one"--God!
At John 10:31, "The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out God."
At this point Jesus brings up Psalm 82:6 and the subject of "Gods," why? (John 10:34-38.) Jesus is taking the Jew's statement about Him blaspheming to its logical conclusion to show that they are being inconsistent.
In effect, Jesus is saying, "If you say that I am blaspheming, you must also hold that God is blaspheming because He said to those by whom the word of God came, "ye are gods."
It is not "blasphemy" to claim to be the Messiah. There is no scholarship which supports this interpretation. Furthermore, MANY people before and after Jesus claimed to be the Messiah and were never charged with, let alone convicted of "blasphemy." It is, however, "blasphemy" to claim to be THE Son of God.
How do I know? All one has to do is read the trial record at Matthew 26:57-67. At vs63 the high priest Caiaphas ask Jesus to swear as to His identity. "And the high priest said to Him, "I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us whether You are (1) the Christ, (2) the Son of God." Whether is defined as "expressing a doubt or choice between alternatives."
At Luke 22:70 Jesus states, "Yes, I am." Now back to Matthew 26:65, "Then the high priest tore his robes, saying. "He has blasphemed! What further need do we have for witnesses? Behold, you have now heard the blasphemy:vs66, "what do you think?" They answered and said, "He is deserving of death!"
The FACT that Jesus was convicted of blasphemy for saying yes is proof that He was claiming deity. The act of claiming deity for one's self IS blasphemy,, unless you really ARE God. The Jews simply did not believe Jesus, just like many do today.