John 1:14 is generally used to say that "God" became "flesh" based on the understanding that "the Word" addressed in John 1:1 refers to God. However, other texts of Scripture appear at variance with this interpretation. The texts which help clarify the basis of this question are shown below. I seek a non-Trinitarian explanations for how these texts might be shown to agree with each other and not be found in contradiction.
|Text (KJV)||Typical Assumption||Opposed by?|
|In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1)||"the Word" = God||And the Word was made flesh . . . and we beheld his glory . . . . (vs. 14) VERSUS No man hath seen God at any time . . . . (vs. 18)|
|And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)||God became a man (Jesus)||God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: . . . . (Numbers 23:19; cf. 1 Samuel 15:29) AND For I am the LORD, I change not;. . . . (Malachi 3:6)|
How do various Christian faith traditions (Unitarians, Jehovahs Witnesses, etc.) that believe in Jesus, reverence sacred scriptures, but don't believe the in Trinity as understood by the various Ecumenical Councils refute the syllogism:
- If the Word is God and the Word became Flesh (in Jesus), why is the Jesus not God?