Matthew 24:36

But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.

Why doesn't Jesus know everything like his God and Father?

  • You might read my answer to What does it mean that the Word became flesh? - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange. Basically the divine being gave up all his supernatural powers and became a physical human being. Except for his connection to the Father through his holy spirit, he was exactly the same as any other human. He could of course have prayed and asked for this knowledge, but at that moment he had no need of it. Oct 16, 2022 at 20:09
  • 1
    I'm confused though because does not the triune concept state that he was fully man and fully the 1 God? Its been a while since I had my babylonian training. Has the concept changed now and are its details widely agreed upon by trinitarians? I will read this link. Thank you. Oct 16, 2022 at 20:14
  • I guess my comment was more from Binitarian or other non-Trinitarian perspective. The Trinity Doctrine includes other concepts that go beyond there being more than one person. It's those other concepts that people have trouble with. CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA says “a mystery is a truth which we are not merely incapable of discovering apart from Divine Revelation, but which, even when revealed, remains "hidden by the veil of faith and enveloped, so to speak, by a kind of darkness" … our understanding of it remains only partial". Oct 16, 2022 at 20:22


Browse other questions tagged .