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It is very obvious that marriage biblically is defined as being between one men and women one (Genesis 2:23-24, Matthew 19:5-6, Mark 10:6-8, 1 Corinthians 7:2, Hebrews 17:4) but what Early Church Fathers believed and defined marriage as being between one man and one woman?

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    If the Bible clearly defines marriage, what Church Father would disagree? And which would bother to restate the definition?
    – DJClayworth
    Commented Sep 26, 2022 at 1:00
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    Why would any Church Father even think of teaching something that everyone already knows and takes for granted?
    – Ray Butterworth
    Commented Oct 24, 2022 at 1:51
  • All the church leaders from the apostles and for centuries thereafter took marriage to be between a man and a woman. A more pointed question could be to ask which early church fathers taught marriage to be between two people of the same sex. Mind you, such a question would likely remain unanswered.
    – Anne
    Commented Oct 25, 2022 at 16:55

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Origen reinforced the biblical rule that marriage is between a man and a woman:

I quote from this website which quotes Origen: https://www.copticchurch.net/patrology/schoolofalex2/chapter19.html

"Since God has joined them together (a man and a woman in marriage), for this reason there is a gift for those joined together by God. Paul knowing this declares that equally with the purity of the holy celibacy is marriage according to the Word of God a gift, saying, "But I would that all men were like myself; howbeit, each man has his own gift from God, one after this manner, and another after that" (1 Cor. 7:7). Those who are joined together by God obey in thought and deed the command "Husbands, love your wives, as Christ also the Church" Eph 5:25."

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