On OrthodoxWiki it says that the filioque violates the Canons of the Council of Ephesus, because it's an addition to the Nicene Creed.

The Catholic Encyclopedia says "[But] that creed itself would be abolished by this decree if it is taken too literally." But does not elaborate much on this. If the problem is taking the canons "too literally" then how should the canons be read?

How do Catholics explain that the filioque does not violate Ephesus?

  • 2
    Does the Council of Ephesus actually forbid writing new creeds? "it is unlawful for any man to bring forward, or to write, or to compose a different Faith", but the Filioque is not a different faith. And anyone who uses the Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed would already be violating it according to those who say it does ban new creeds, which AFAIK includes most Eastern Orthodox churches.
    – curiousdannii
    Jul 25 at 22:26
  • 2
    It seems to me that you either be a 325 purist, or if you accept the 381 creed (along with the Chalcedonian Definition) then you don't have canonical grounds to oppose the filioque. You could oppose it on theological grounds, but those have always seemed incredibly weak to me, and really only oppose heretical positions that are compatible with but not implied by the filioque itself. I might turn this into an answer later.
    – curiousdannii
    Jul 25 at 22:30
  • You're right, I didn't try to look for the text of the canons Jul 26 at 1:10


You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .