There are some that seem to say that he doesn't and then some seems to say that he does (p.19) so I wonder what is going on here. I understand that there are different kinds of ways to explain how guilt is imputed (realist vs federal, etc) but regardless, did John Wesley believe in imputation of guilt?
If the answer is yes, I have no further question. But if the answer is no, then what do Wesleyans mean when they say baptism 'cleansed the guilt of original sin'?
Links and references are appreciated!