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There are some that seem to say that he doesn't and then some seems to say that he does (p.19) so I wonder what is going on here. I understand that there are different kinds of ways to explain how guilt is imputed (realist vs federal, etc) but regardless, did John Wesley believe in imputation of guilt?

If the answer is yes, I have no further question. But if the answer is no, then what do Wesleyans mean when they say baptism 'cleansed the guilt of original sin'?

Links and references are appreciated!

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    The quotation on p15 of your second link is quite specific and seems to me to answer your question. Original sin involves guilt and punishment ... etc
    – Nigel J
    Commented Jul 13, 2022 at 9:50
  • Nigel, the p.15 seem to talk about total depravity. (In case p.19 appears to be p.15 on your browser, then, the question still stands since there seem to be conflicting opinions about the matter (an example would be the first link, which seems to say "no"), and it appears that people don't talk much about it.)
    – ohteepee
    Commented Jul 15, 2022 at 13:27

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