How could it when the verses are addressed to the congregation of the saints in Philadelphia, almost at the close of the first century A.D? Even if an application is claimed for all generations of faithful believers, right up until Jesus suddenly returns, there would need to be an explanation as to how each generation of faithful Christians were 'raptured' into heaven. Otherwise, the need will arise to explain how being 'raptured' could not possibly apply to that one congregation back then, or to any other congregations for the following 1,900 years.
Further, how could it apply when the word 'rapture' occurs nowhere in that letter to that congregation?
To be "kept from an hour of trial" does not necessarily equate with being snatched up and away from the face of the earth into heaven! They could be kept from the trial while they continue living on the earth. The Greek for this phrase can mean either 'keep you from undergoing', or 'keep you through' the hour of trial. Now, if Revelation 3:10 went on to say that would happen by being snatched up into heaven, all would be clear. But it doesn't.
To answer the question in the affirmative requires a particular interpretation of assorted Bible verses, and there are many opinions on this. This site neither looks for opinions nor particular interpretations of prophetic statements. That is why advice was given to scope this question to those holding to a particular apocalyptic view, and another pointed out that "truth" questions are not in order, here. You have added your own opinion at the end, but without making that a viable part of the question. It's no use just listing various possibilities and seeking opinions on them. Therefore, could you please lick your question into shape before it it removed? I have given this as an answer simply because there's not enough room in comments to deal with the problems your question gives rise to, but please persevere with trying to ask in accordance with site guidance for questions.