4

Revelation 3:10 states:

10 Since you have kept my command to endure patiently, I will also keep you from the hour of trial that is going to come on the whole world to test the inhabitants of the earth.

This doesn't seem to confirm any rapture before the mark of the beast. The verse doesn't seem to imply that "keeping from trial" means "keeping from trial by rapturing", for example, christians or their "culture" could be extinct over time at the point of "christianity" to be forgotten so the verse would hold with no problem.

3
  • 1
    This question needs to be scoped to a specific denomination or apocalyptical view. Please edit your question :)
    – Luke Hill
    Jun 10 at 20:21
  • Rev 12:13–20 says "… she was given two wings like those of a great eagle so she could fly to the place prepared for her in the wilderness. There she would be cared for and protected from the dragon for a time, times, and half a time. … And the dragon was angry at the woman and declared war against the rest of her children—all who keep God’s commandments ….". Some denominations believe this refers to the Church, which is physically taken to a place of safety for 3½ years. But other denominations don't. ¶ Questions should ask what specific denominations believe, not whether a belief is true. Jun 11 at 1:25
  • The woman could be the chosen and the rest the called. She flew to a place of safety could mean being transported to heaven by eagles (angels). Jun 14 at 1:52

2 Answers 2

3

How could it when the verses are addressed to the congregation of the saints in Philadelphia, almost at the close of the first century A.D? Even if an application is claimed for all generations of faithful believers, right up until Jesus suddenly returns, there would need to be an explanation as to how each generation of faithful Christians were 'raptured' into heaven. Otherwise, the need will arise to explain how being 'raptured' could not possibly apply to that one congregation back then, or to any other congregations for the following 1,900 years.

Further, how could it apply when the word 'rapture' occurs nowhere in that letter to that congregation?

To be "kept from an hour of trial" does not necessarily equate with being snatched up and away from the face of the earth into heaven! They could be kept from the trial while they continue living on the earth. The Greek for this phrase can mean either 'keep you from undergoing', or 'keep you through' the hour of trial. Now, if Revelation 3:10 went on to say that would happen by being snatched up into heaven, all would be clear. But it doesn't.

To answer the question in the affirmative requires a particular interpretation of assorted Bible verses, and there are many opinions on this. This site neither looks for opinions nor particular interpretations of prophetic statements. That is why advice was given to scope this question to those holding to a particular apocalyptic view, and another pointed out that "truth" questions are not in order, here. You have added your own opinion at the end, but without making that a viable part of the question. It's no use just listing various possibilities and seeking opinions on them. Therefore, could you please lick your question into shape before it it removed? I have given this as an answer simply because there's not enough room in comments to deal with the problems your question gives rise to, but please persevere with trying to ask in accordance with site guidance for questions.

3
  • 2
    Up-voted. As with the number 1,000, far too much emphasis is being placed on the word 'rapture' and a completely unbalanced view is being propagated regarding the immediate return of Christ and the immediate judgment upon his return. Thus, instead of saints being ready for that immediate event, multitudes are being lulled into a false idea of rapture and millenium. It is notable that the Reformers did not hold such doctrines. These concepts became popular within (and from) Brethrenism.
    – Nigel J
    Jun 11 at 14:15
  • I think I made it better please look through Jun 11 at 23:07
  • 1
    @Davi Americo Yes, your changes to your last para show more detail. I hope you don’t mind, but I have taken the liberty of brushing up your spelling, grammar and sentence structure there. You can always roll that back and revert it to your own changes, if you wish, if I have misunderstood your new points. But it is better and your efforts are appreciated.
    – Anne
    Jun 12 at 16:56
0

Rev 3:10 is nearly universally carelessly and misleadingly translated:

  1. The Greek noun,"peiradzo" would more properly be rendered "temptation", not "testing"
  2. The Greek verb "tereo" would more properly be rendered "watch-over", or "guard", not "keep".
  3. The present-active-paeticiple of the Greek verb "mell0", would more properly be rendered, "presently-being-about-to", rather than completely ignored by most English translations.
  4. The Aorist-infinitive of the Greek verb, "peirazó" would more properly be rendered "to-tempt" not "to test"
  5. The present middle infinitive of the Greek verb "erchomai" would more precisely be rendered "presently-to-come" rather than "to-come" which could imply an indefinite future in English. If an indefinite future had been intended, the Greek spelling would have been Aorist-infinitive, not present-infinitive.
  6. The Greek preposition "ek" would more properly be rendered, "from-out-of", not "from". The Greek preposition meaning,"from" is "apo", not "ek".
  7. The present-active-participle of the Greek verb "katoikeó" would more precisely rendered, "presently-dwelling.

Thus, the Greek text reveals a promise to watch-over/guard from out of a temptation presently being about to presently come, to presently tempt the ones presently dwelling upon the whole inhabited earth.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .