At John 8:58, Jesus says
"Before Abraham was born, I am the one." (REV)
The Greek is
πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί
Because the Jews then pick up stones, some Trinitarians believe there is an inference here that Jesus is claiming to be Yahweh, with a connection between God's name as revealed in Exodus and the Greek term ἐγὼ εἰμί (ego eimi).
So they would translate this as
"Before Abraham was, I AM." (NKJV)
where the 'I AM' is capitalized by the translator to indicate a reference to Yahweh, in the style of how 'LORD' is capitalized in various translations to replace Yahweh in the Old Testament.
Yet, if you go back to just John 8:24, Jesus uses the same phrase.
"Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am He, you will die in your sins."
Here, most translations say "I am he" (ego eimi) instead of just "I am" (or "I AM"), because that's the sort of meaning the phrase imparts in Koine Greek.
Even closer, at John 8:28, Jesus says
"“When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He"
Similarly, most translations say "I am he" (ego eimi) because, again, that's just what the phrase means in this sort of context.
Furthermore, if you just skip ahead 10 lines from John 8:58, someone else says 'ego eimi' at John 9:9.
"But the man kept saying, “I am the one.”"
Again, 'I am the one' is just a normal translation of 'ego eimi'. Not only did the man say 'ego eimi', he kept saying it.
We have 3 proximate uses of 'ego eimi' to John 8:58, yet none of them are typically translated 'I AM' or even just 'I am' and there is no recorded reaction to the use of the words.
According to those who think the picking up of stones is due to a reference to Yahweh because of the phrase 'ego eimi', how is this discrepancy explained?