It looks like the 'intent' of the baptizer requires some sort of assent to Trinitarian beliefs in order for a baptism to be considered valid by the Catholic Church (see Would a person baptized by a Biblical Unitarian church be considered a Christian by the Catholic Church?).
Given Trinitarianism did not develop as an explicit theology for hundreds of years after Jesus' ministry, and a plausible historical view is that early baptisms weren't done with the intent to baptize in a contemporary Trinitarian sense, and the words in Matthew 28:19
Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit
don't seem to require Trinitarian intent (and that, ex., Biblical Unitarians have no problem with that formulation in baptism,) what are the main arguments the Catholic Church puts forward for requiring Trinitarian intent on part of the baptizer in order for there to be a valid baptism?