Recently, I have spent some time trying to better understand the Messianic prophecy given in Dan. 9:24-27, which begins with ``Seventy weeks are decreed ....
It seems that many English translations begin 9:24 as such, albeit the Hebrew "shavuim", which I understand is given in the Hebrew test, means sevens.
Based on what Daniel was thinking about when the angel Gabriel appeared to him, it is clear enough that the prophecy pertains to seventy sevens (or 490) years, the last seven of which still seems to be in the future.
However, it has been interpreted that the Messiah must have come (before the completion of the first sixty-nine sevens of years) AND must have been "cut off" AFTER the completion of those years.
Furthermore, the beginning of those seventy sevens of years must have occurred ``from the utterance of the word that Jerusalem was to be rebuilt ..."
Now, chronology from that time is not a clear as we would like to have it, but it does seem to be the case that there are four possibilities for the decree that the prophecy refers to; and in particular, when the countdown of seventy sevens began---The very latest being the decree of Artaxerxes to Nehemiah to rebuild the walls around Jerusalem in 444 B.C.
Thus, at the very latest, the countdown of the seventy sevens of years began no later than this date.
WHAT LENGTH OF A YEAR IS LIKELY BEING ALLUDED TO?
If we take the year to be a solar year, then -444 + 483 = 39; and so, simply speaking, the Messiah must have been cut off (killed) around 39 A.D., or later---which seems to be too late.
And if we use the dates of the other three possibilities (that I am not listing here)---the Messiah would then have had to have been born much too early, since according to Daniel's prophecy, He had to have been on earth before the expiration of the sixty-nine sevens. This, in some cases, would have placed His birth in near the second century B.C.
Hence, with the thought that the Jewish calendar neither is, nor was, a solar calendar---is it possible that the elapse of 483 years prior to the Messiah being cut off refers to "years" on the order of 360 days? I ask, because roughly speaking, this would have the Messiah being cut off in or after the early 30s A.D. which agrees more closely with current calculations as to the year in which Jesus Christ was crucified.
Can someone add light to (or correct) these thoughts on calculating a lower bound for when "the Anointed One" had to have been cut off according to Daniel's prophecy? Thank you.