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This period of time is mentioned in Daniel and in Revelation, do they refer to the same period in history or are there dissonant interpretations? Further, is John explicitly referring to Daniel or he gets his own inspiration?

Edit:

'Time, times and half a time' equates to 'three and a half days/years' and to '1,260 days' and 'forty two months'. It is a common theme in scripture and clearly represents the Church Age (ascension to return of the Son of man) as many commentators affirm

Nigel says this is the usual interpretation, then I am aware also of the interpretation by Newton, who considered (quite arbitrarily) 1260 years starting from 800 a.C.

But both these interpretations, in my view, are wrong since the period on the carpet is the the time when the devil is loose

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    Could you add the bible quotes to this question? I think I'd like to migrate it to Biblical Hermeneutics site - it doesn't really belong on this site unless you can wrap it around a particular denomination's interpretation of the Bible.
    – Peter Turner
    Apr 26, 2022 at 13:04
  • 'Time, times and half a time' equates to 'three and a half days/years' and to '1,260 days' and 'forty two months'. It is a common theme in scripture and clearly represents the Church Age (ascension to return of the Son of man) as many commentators affirm.
    – Nigel J
    Apr 26, 2022 at 13:47
  • @PeterTurner I agree with the migrate if no denominational view is requested. Apr 26, 2022 at 13:52

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