We read in Ex 4: 19-24:

Now the Lord had said to Moses in Midian, “Go back to Egypt, for all those who wanted to kill you are dead.” So Moses took his wife and sons, put them on a donkey and started back to Egypt. And he took the staff of God in his hand......... At a lodging place on the way, the Lord met Moses and was about to kill him.

One is intrigued by the mention of the Lord wanting to `kill' Moses in Verse 24. There is nothing to show that Moses had earned the wrath of God by disobedience or otherwise. Could it be an error of translation?

My question therefore, is: Why did the Lord want to kill Moses on the latter's way back to Egypt?

Inputs from any denomination are welcome.

1 Answer 1

  • Exodus 4:23-25 KJV And I say unto thee, Let my son go, that he may serve me: and if thou refuse to let him go, behold, I will slay thy son, even thy firstborn. 24 And it came to pass by the way in the inn, that the LORD met him, and sought to kill him. 25 Then Zipporah took a sharp stone, and cut off the foreskin of her son, and cast it at his feet, and said, Surely a bloody husband art thou to me.

The context seems to be firstborn sons. I believe it was Moses' firstborn son he was going to kill as Moses had not circumcised him according to the commandment given to Abraham.

  • Thanks, Paul Walker. Things fall in place if we read Lord as Lord' s messenger , and understand that Zipporah was addressing the Messenger ,and not Moses. So, it was a case of mistaken identity that got averted by the timely intervention of Zipporah. Apr 6 at 15:03

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