God was able to prevent Mary from being born with the stain original sin. If God can do this with one person, He can do this with everyone. This suggests that God forces everyone but Mary, against their free will, to be born with the stain of original sin. We do not freely choose to be born with the stain of original sin--God chooses that we are born with original sin even though He has the power to prevent it. Is this true? Or am I missing something?
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You seem to be asking two things: "Whether He could have redeemed us from sin differently than He did?" (cf. "Whether it was necessary for Christ to suffer for the deliverance of the human race?" or "Whether it was necessary for the restoration of the human race that the Word of God should become incarnate?");– GeremiaJan 27, 2022 at 18:39
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and "How is original sin really sin, considering no one can be forced to sin (sin being a voluntary act of the will)?"; cf. "How voluntary is original sin in Adam's descendants?".– GeremiaJan 27, 2022 at 18:40
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Hi Stuart, I closed this question as a duplicate (it's actually a pertty popular one) if you want to ask a more nuanced question that avoids the duplication, you can edit and flag for re-opening. I think this is identical, except you asked about "everybody" instead of "anybody".– Peter Turner ♦Jan 27, 2022 at 19:07
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