Isaiah 6:1, "In the year of King Uzziah's death, I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, lofty and exalted with the train of His robe filling the temple."

This is confirmed by the Apostle John at John 12:41, "These things Isaiah said, because he spoke of Him." At John 12 Jesus is addressing the Jews and John says at John 12:36, "These things Jesus spoke, and He departed and hid Himself from them."

Vs37, But though He had performed so many signs before them, yet they were not believing Him; vs38, that the word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spoke, "Lord, who has believed our report? And to has the arm of the Lord been revealed? vs39, For this cause they could not believe, for Isaiah said again,

Vs40, "He has blinded their eyes, and He hardened their heart; Lest they see with their eyes, and perceive with their heart, and be converted, and I heal them."

The verb Isaiah used for "saw" in Isaiah 6:1 is (ra'ah). In the qal, it refers to the act of seeing in the literal sense, to see with the eyes (as opposed to, for example "machazeh," which is the act or event of an ecstatic "vision.) In referring to this event, John uses the Greek word (eidon), also a verb referring to the act of seeing with the eyes in the natural sense.

We know that God the Father is invisible, "whom no man hath seen, nor can see" (1 Timothy 6:16). He is transcendent and lives in unapproachable light (1 Timothy 6:16). But the Son is "the image of the invisible God" (Colossians 1:15).

Thus the one whom Isaiah "saw" in the literal sense with his eyes is the one whom he explicitly identified as "YHWY", the same one whose glory he saw according to John at John 12:41. Jesus Himself makes this clear at John 12:45, "He who beholds Me beholds the One who sent Me."

  • Isaiah 6:1 says YHWH in Hebrew not the Lord Isaiah is seeing Jehovah in this vision of the glorious heavenly throne. Human eyes cannot see spirits. Therefore we understand he like John in revelation is describing things God inspired him to see in his minds eye.
    – Kris
    Oct 19 '21 at 21:23
  • wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1102000028. Paragraphs 2-3
    – Kris
    Oct 19 '21 at 21:31
  • @Kris Well, that makes it even worse for your position. Please read the following: csmedia1.com/317ministries.net/… Since you said, "to see in his minds eye," can you explain why the OT uses the word "ra'ah to see with your literal eyes? Why did not the OT use the word, "machazeh" which is an ecstatic vision? John used the Greek word "eidon" which means seeing with the physical eyes. Tell me Kris, did you yourself look up these words in the Hebrew and the Greek to see if what Isaiah and John the Apostle said is true?
    – Mr. Bond
    Oct 19 '21 at 21:47
  • Did Isaiah see yhwh with his physical eyes then?
    – Kris
    Oct 19 '21 at 21:51
  • 1
    @Mr.Bond you've tripped over yourself - "We know that God the Father is invisible", (ok, your own interpretation - verse says 'God') so then by your reckoning, God the Father is the only one who is immortal! Well done, you've seen the light at last!
    – steveowen
    Oct 21 '21 at 11:40

Those who reject Christ don't care what John or Isiah had to say. They usually believe that the Bible was written by cynics who just wanted followers or people seeking renown and fame. So your question, while of the best intentions, is kind of pointless.

Now if you are speaking of the Jewish people, that is a little different. They would reject John as being divinely inspired, but they would know that John would have been aware of the Jewish traditions, including Isiah. Jews might say that John wrote those things because he already knew what Isiah had written and said. There is a LOT of that sort of thing in the book of Matthew. Is it prophecy fulfilled? Or is it just somebody repeating what they already know? I think the former, but you decide for yourself.

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