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Isaiah 6:1, "In the year of King Uzziah's death, I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, lofty and exalted with the train of His robe filling the temple."

This is confirmed by the Apostle John at John 12:41, "These things Isaiah said, because he spoke of Him." At John 12 Jesus is addressing the Jews and John says at John 12:36, "These things Jesus spoke, and He departed and hid Himself from them."

Vs37, But though He had performed so many signs before them, yet they were not believing Him; vs38, that the word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spoke, "Lord, who has believed our report? And to has the arm of the Lord been revealed? vs39, For this cause they could not believe, for Isaiah said again,

Vs40, "He has blinded their eyes, and He hardened their heart; Lest they see with their eyes, and perceive with their heart, and be converted, and I heal them."

The verb Isaiah used for "saw" in Isaiah 6:1 is (ra'ah). In the qal, it refers to the act of seeing in the literal sense, to see with the eyes (as opposed to, for example "machazeh," which is the act or event of an ecstatic "vision.) In referring to this event, John uses the Greek word (eidon), also a verb referring to the act of seeing with the eyes in the natural sense.

We know that God the Father is invisible, "whom no man hath seen, nor can see" (1 Timothy 6:16). He is transcendent and lives in unapproachable light (1 Timothy 6:16). But the Son is "the image of the invisible God" (Colossians 1:15).

Thus the one whom Isaiah "saw" in the literal sense with his eyes is the one whom he explicitly identified as "YHWY", the same one whose glory he saw according to John at John 12:41. Jesus Himself makes this clear at John 12:45, "He who beholds Me beholds the One who sent Me."

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  • Let us continue this discussion in chat.
    – 007
    Commented Oct 20, 2021 at 21:49
  • Isaiah 6:1 says YHWH in Hebrew not the Lord. Isaiah is seeing Jehovah in this vision of the glorious heavenly throne. Human eyes cannot see spirits. Therefore we understand he like John in revelation is describing things God inspired him to see in his minds eye.
    – 007
    Commented Jul 25, 2023 at 13:49
  • The Lord, the original here the word is not יהוה yehovâh but אדני 'ădonāy. Here it is applied to Yahweh; see also Psalms 114:7, where it is also applied; see Isaiah 8:7, and Job 28:28, where Yahweh calls himself “Adonai.” The word does not itself denote essential divinity; but it is often applied to God. In some MSS., however, of Kennicott and DeRossi, the word Yahweh is found. (Barnes Notes) So, vision or no vision Isaiah saw the glory of Jesus Christ and many rulers believed in Him. John 12:42. This verse backs up John 17:5, "Glory Jesus had before the world was." This is preexistence.
    – Mr. Bond
    Commented Jul 25, 2023 at 17:34

1 Answer 1

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As a non-trinitarian, I will try to explain this. The question actually contains much truth, but is framed in a provocative manner as if the truth should not be thought of as truth.

The following Biblical truths are important:

  1. God is invisible. (1 Timothy 1:17; Colossians 1:15)
  2. No one has seen God at any time. (John 1:18; 1 John 4:12; John 5:37)
  3. No one has heard God's voice at any time. (John 5:37)
  4. The Father is the only true God. (John 17:3; John 20:17; 1 Corinthians 8:6; John 4:21-24; etc.)

It follows that any time anyone has ever seen or heard "God," it was not God the Father--the only true "God."

In the Hebrew language, the word "elohim," usually translated as God or gods, could also mean, and is translated as, "angels" and "judges" and can apply to people. So in a technical sense, many people have seen "elohim". Furthermore, Jesus said that he came in his Father's name (see John 5:43), so even if we assume that "YHWH" is the Father's name, if someone has seen a being with this name, it can be Jesus, not the Father: In fact, not just "can" be, but it "must" be.

So, two additional points are important to understand:

  1. "Elohim" is not the same as "God" in English.
  2. "YHWH" can be Jesus, and not just God the Father.

As a non-trinitarian, I am not an Arian. Both Arius and Athanasius were incorrect in their beliefs. Arius believed Jesus was created and had not previously existed. In this, he was wrong.

Jesus, the image of God--in other words, God's representation of Himself to His creation, is also called "the Son of God," and he existed well before the creation of our Earth. As John 3:16 eloquently states of God (the Father), "he gave his only begotten son." If the Bible says God gave His son, we know that He had a son to give. That son existed before being thus given.

Jesus stated in John 5:37 that no one had ever heard God's voice at any time. This would necessarily include the Old Testament times. It follows, then, that at Mount Sinai, at the burning bush, in the Garden of Eden . . . at any time, it was Jesus' own voice speaking to the people. He is called "the Word of God" for a reason. He speaks God's words, not his own--but that very point is important. He himself cannot be God.

Jesus is a separate being from the Father, who is "the only true God." This is not a Trinity, and it is not a Binity. Jesus is not God. However, Jesus is like God, as God's representative. According to the dictionary definitions of words like "divine", Jesus is divine.

Human language may come short of being able to properly explain some of these mysteries such as Jesus' nature. But the Bible tells us what is essential for us to know. And it tells us these truths in clear language. The language makes certain that Jesus is God's Son, not God.

Nothing in the Bible says no one has seen nor heard God's Son at any time. Far from it--the Bible instructs us that all we have ever learned about God has been through His Son.

The fact is this: Isaiah saw Jesus, not God (the Father).


For reference:

The Divinity of Jesus Christ (PDF Booklet)

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  • Is this answer your personal viewpoints ur does it represent the official view of a particular denomination? Especially the claim that YHWH can be Jesus.
    – 007
    Commented Jul 27, 2023 at 11:56
  • @User14, my denomination has adopted heretical views of the Godhead which it did not always have. There is still no other denomination that more closely matches my beliefs, but what I share here are the results of my own personal, careful study over the past several years.
    – Biblasia
    Commented Jul 27, 2023 at 15:33
  • Comments have been moved to chat; please do not continue the discussion here. Before posting a comment below this one, please review the purposes of comments. Comments that do not request clarification or suggest improvements usually belong as an answer, on Christianity Meta, or in Christianity Chat. Comments continuing discussion may be removed.
    – curiousdannii
    Commented Jul 28, 2023 at 13:32
  • @Biblasia This site doesn't do personal interpretations. Unless you can identify a denomination which does match what you explain here this answer (and any others like it) will probably have to be deleted.
    – curiousdannii
    Commented Jul 28, 2023 at 13:34
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    Another way to think about it is that this site is like Wikipedia: no original research. We're here to point people to other resources, not be the primary source for a theological camp. (Note that we don't require everything to have explicit citations, but authors should be prepared to add them if challenged.)
    – curiousdannii
    Commented Jul 28, 2023 at 14:16

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