A comment by Nigel:

The dual nature of Jesus Christ is such that Deity and humanity meet in one Person. The natures neither mingle, nor merge, nor 'switch'. They are two distinct things. They meet only in the Person of Jesus Christ. This is a mystery, it is a matter of faith, not carnal understanding, for the carnal mind cannot receive or process such a mystery.

It would seem that this idea of 'dual natures' is totally dependent on post-Apostolic creeds. If that is not the case, what is the corroborating biblical support?

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    I think the question could be reworded as What is the biblical basis for Dyophysitism?
    – user50422
    Commented Jul 24, 2021 at 1:29
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    I think we need less big words to describe matters about God than more.
    – steveowen
    Commented Jul 24, 2021 at 1:47
  • See Cyril's writings.
    – user46876
    Commented Jul 24, 2021 at 2:15
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    One year and four months after asking this Q, you have now changed part of it, removing your reference to 1 Cor. 8:6. Given the many biblical texts already provided in several answers, I have changed your new ‘unambiguous’ to ‘corroborative’ as ‘unambiguous’ is opinion-based, and is subjective. It may seem to you and some others that this matter is “totally dependent on post-Apostolic creeds” – an example of an opinion-based, subjective comment – which I’ve left alone by way of an example of such a thing.
    – Anne
    Commented Nov 28, 2022 at 11:26

7 Answers 7


The two natures of Jesus Christ is a fairly natural conclusion when we consider what the New Testament says about him.

Firstly, it's clear that Jesus has a human nature: he has a physical body, he sleeps, he hungers (Mark 11:12), he learns (Hebrews 5:8).

More contentiously, Jesus is divine. The evidence for this is more debated. For example his miracles: does he do them in his own power and right, or is he the conduit of the Father, just as many other humans "did" miracles? Other questions have asked for the Bible basis for Jesus being God incarnate, so I'll just highlight a few things from his life that I think form the strongest argument that he is God incarnate:

  • He claims the right to forgive sin (Mark 2:10)
  • He can know the thoughts of others (Matthew 9:4; 12:25; Luke 5:22; 6:8; 9:47; 11:17)
  • He claims to have existed before Abraham, a claim normally interpreted as implying his eternality (John 8:58)
  • He willingly receives the worship of humans (Matthew 2:11; 14:33; 28:9; 28:17)

But even if you accept both of these premises, two complete natures is not the only option. In the early church several alternatives were proposed and eventually declared heretical:

  • That his human nature was only an illusion (Docetism)
  • That Jesus had some sort of combined or hybrid divine-human nature (monophysitism, Eutyches)
  • That Jesus does not have a complete human nature, having a divine mind in place of a human mind (Apollinarism)

The ecumenical councils of the early church decided that these positions did not accord with the scriptures, and that they also had serious theological consequences. Gregory of Nazianzus's famous statement of "That which is not assumed is not healed" gets at the problem of all positions which deny that Jesus had a full human nature. The hope of the Christian Gospel is for complete healing and freedom from sin through the resurrection into the new creation inaugurated by Jesus Christ. We normally focus on bodily resurrection, but arguably it is the non-physical resurrection that will be more significant: when our heart loves what is evil, we need the hope of new hearts and new affections. When our mind betrays us and lies to us, we need the hope of new minds. When our spirit is downtrodden and weak, we need the hope of new spirits brought to full life by Jesus. If Jesus never actually had a human mind, or will, or soul, then our hope in the Gospel is eroded. When we are united to Christ by faith, will his resurrection only result in our physical bodies being raised to life with our souls and minds just as they are now, or will we receive the complete transformation he initiated?

That Jesus had two full and distinct natures, divine and human, is supported by many passages in the Gospels. I listed above many verses which describe Jesus knowing the "inner thoughts" of those around him - this kind of knowledge must come from the divine omniscient mind. Here we see knowledge from the divine mind communicated to the human mind (for it is the human mind which makes the body speak). But at other times Jesus says that he does not know something which only the Father knows, the time of his second coming or judgement day (Matthew 24:36, Mark 13:32). This is the clearest case where the divine mind of Christ, which certainly does know the date, decides to keep this knowledge from his human mind.

Another interesting case is when the woman who had been bleeding for twelve years was healed by touching Jesus's robe (Matthew 9:20-22, Mark 5:25-34, Luke 8:43-48). I think many people read Jesus's question "Who touched me?" as a rhetorical question, but do these texts really lead us to that interpretation? Mark says Jesus "kept looking around" and Luke has Jesus quite adamantly respond to Peter that he knew he had been touched and power had gone out from him. I think it would be better to read this, not as a rhetorical question from Christ's human nature which had been given omniscience by his divine nature, but instead as the genuine question of a human man who was not at this time being given insight from his divine nature, presumably so that the rest of the story could play out with his compassionate acceptance of the woman and his affirmation of her faith.

The last example I want to raise is Jesus's anguish in the Garden of Gethsemane. The previous examples showed the distinct human mind of Christ, this one shows his distinct human will. In Matthew 26:39-42, Mark 14:35-36, and Luke 22:42 Jesus prays that if possible he be spared from the upcoming ordeal he is about to undergo. In his human nature Jesus did not want to die that painful death on the cross, just as none of us would. The divine nature would give him strength to endure it, but these passages would not make any sense from the perspective of Docetism or Apollinarism.

  • The problem historically has been not so much whether Jesus Christ was two (fully God and fully human) or one (person of the Trinity), but what "nature" should be taken to mean, especially when people were using it in different languages and the sense changed over time
    – Henry
    Commented Jul 27, 2021 at 0:48
  • @Henry A church history professor I took a course from commented that if Greek had had just one more term for "nature" or "essence" or "being" the division at Chalcedon wouldn't have happened because as it was there just weren't enough terms to cover all the aspects being discussed. Having since then read nearly ten thousand pages, many f them original sources, on the matter I think he was right!
    – Traildude
    Commented Apr 29 at 20:23

The writer to the Hebrews clearly declares the humanity of Christ for ‘in all things, it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren’, Heb 2:7, there being nothing of humanity to which he was a stranger, even temptation, for he was ‘tempted in all points like as we are’, Heb 4:5, ‘yet without sin'.

Jesus speaks of his own human soul, ‘Now is my soul troubled …’, John 12:27, and, ‘My soul is exceeding sorrowful …’, Matt 26:38. It was prophesied of him that ‘Thou wilt not leave my soul in hell (hades/sheol)’, Psalm 16:10 and Acts 2:31. And, ‘He hath poured out his soul unto death,’ Isa 53:12.

He is the ‘second humanity’, 1 Cor 15:47, and he is the ‘last Adam’, 1 Cor 15:45.

But he is also a ‘quickening spirit’, 1 Cor 15:45, which Adam never was, for Adam’s only life was a matter of displaced air, breathed atmosphere, the filling of the nostrils, and the transfer of that living component to the blood supply such that ‘the life is in the blood’ of the first humanity.

Of his humanity Jesus says, ‘Behold my hands and my feet,’ Luke 39,’that it is I myself’ (Greek literal ‘that he I am’, TR). The ‘he’ whom Jesus identifies is ‘I’. Both are his self ; the ‘he’ his humanity and the ‘I’ the quickening spirit. The ‘he’ has hands and feet. Behold them, for this ‘he’ is . . . . ‘I’.

Of this quickening spirit, his own spirit, his spiritual being, Jesus says ‘I and the Father are one’, John 10:30. Since it is the Father with whom he is ‘one’ (which Father is spirit only, for the Father has no physical manifestation whatsoever) then the ‘one’-ness is a oneness of spirit, the spirit of the Son being one with the spirit of the Father. And this is so, in one Holy Spirit.

Jesus clearly tells us, John 4:24, that ‘God is spirit’ (literally Pneuma ho Theos, ‘Spirit, the God’). And the Father and the Son are, thus, one spirit, in the Holy Spirit.

He is ‘the life, the eternal’, 1 John 1:2. Before manifestation. ‘Which was with the Father.’ Eternally so, in what Origen describes as an ‘eternal begetting’ (see below **). Father and Son, in spiritual union, in one Holy Spirit.

These two natures do not merge. They are different things. Uniquely, they meet, but they meet only in His Person. That is where and how they meet.

His Person.

For Jesus says, John 3:13, whilst standing on earth on his physical feet, 'the Son of man (that is to say, The Son/of man) which is in heaven'.

Standing on the earth, in humanity, yet His spirit is also one with the Father in heaven. He is ever 'in the bosom of the Father'.

Whilst in the bosom of the Father (in heaven) he also 'declares him' on earth, John 1:18.

This is the mystery of his person : the 'mystery of Christ', Colossians 4:3, and the 'mystery of the faith', 1 Timothy 3:9.

** Elsewhere, I fully set out the concept of ‘eternal begetting’ and I show the textual basis for this in regard to Jesus’ birth as documented by Matthew and Luke, but it is more than I can reasonably reproduce here so it is available, free of charge, as a download - the entire book titled ‘The Son of Man’ and also the entire book 'The Only Begotten Son of God'.

See my profile for the web address.

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    This is profound "For Jesus says, John 3:13, whilst standing on earth on his physical feet, 'the Son of man (that is to say, The Son/of man) which is in heaven'." He stands upon the earth and declares concurrent presence in heaven! +1 Commented Jul 24, 2021 at 16:14
  • @MikeBorden You seem to read John 3:13 as saying that Christ ascended into heaven before His ascension after His resurrection. That would not be a fair interpretation. He became a human being. He only ascended into heaven after His resurrection. In the context of verse 12, I propose that we understand verse 13 as saying that no human person has ascended into heaven to know what heaven is like. But the Son is able to because He descended from heaven.
    – Andries
    Commented Nov 4, 2021 at 9:59
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    @Andries John 3:13 is not stating an ascension. It states a continual presence in heaven. And it is incorrect to say 'He became a human being'.' No scripture states such a thing. That would imply a full transition from one form of existence to another. Which is not the case.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Nov 4, 2021 at 10:42
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    @Andries Nigel's comment below explains what I meant by concurrent presence. Commented Nov 4, 2021 at 11:39
  • @NigelJ "Καὶ ὁ Λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο" pretty much says that the eternal Word Who is Himself God BECAME human. It is the source of the Creed's declaration that "Who for us men and for our salvation came down from heaven and was incarnate by the Holy Spirit of the virgin Mary and was made man" (τὸν δι' ἡμᾶς τοὺς ἀνθρώπους καὶ διὰ τὴν ἡμετέραν σωτηρίαν κατελθόντα ἐκ τῶν οὐρανῶν καὶ σαρκωθέντα ἐκ Πνεύματος Ἁγίου καὶ Μαρίας τῆς παρθένου καὶ ἐνανθρωπήσαντα). ἐγένετο indicates that He became what He was not before, it does not mean that He ceased being what He had been -- thus "became" is acceptable.
    – Traildude
    Commented Apr 29 at 20:32

Not wishing to reinvent the wheel, I would point to two answers that soundly answer your questions. Curiousdannii flagged up some deviations from 1st century biblical Christianity that got going, largely before any credal statements were formed. Even the Apostles’ Creed was not known to be recorded in its simplest form prior to A.D.400. Docetism, Monophysitism and Apollinarism were given as examples. Several other answers have given plenty of scriptural proofs for the claim in question. But what does not yet seem to have been addressed is that you are seeking answers from “any who believe in the simplicity of 1 Cor 8:6”. “But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.”

There is a certain simplicity in that verse for those who have been following Paul’s argument about Christians being sensitive not to stumble others by eating food that has been first offered in sacrifice to idols (vs. 4). Christians who know the Father to be but one God, and who know Christ to be but one Lord, don’t find eating such food a problem. Idols are nothing. They are neither gods nor lords. But if a weak Christian thinks such food must not be eaten due to thinking idols are something, then the mature Christian would not eat that food – purely so as not to stumble the weak Christian.

The problem here is that ‘simplicity’ might be turned into ‘simplistic’. That would happen if a person approached Paul’s discussion here with a preconception that there can only be the Father who is God (divine) and the Son can only be Lord (not of that divine being). The simplistic approach rules out Christ having the divine being of God; if only the Father can be called ‘God’, then the Son can only be called ‘human’. The simplistic approach starts with the claim that as Christ is not God, he must only be Lord, and that is what they suppose one verse in 1 Cor. 8:6 says. So, Jesus only has one nature, according to the simplistic view – a human nature.

This simplistic view depends on belief in Jesus having a starting point, the Father having brought Jesus into existence at some point in time. No creature can have the same divine being as the uncreated, Creator God! Yet 1 Cor. 8:6 states that it is the Lord Jesus Christ “by whom are all things”. John 1:1-3 confirms this, that prior to becoming the man, Jesus, he “made everything that was made”, logically proving that he could not have been made himself. He existed from before time and creation began as “the Word” who was both with God and who is God. It is likely that those who take a simplistic view of 1 Cor. 8:6 argue against what John 1:1-3 states.

The Bible makes it clear that the divine nature of the Son of God had human nature added to the Son when he incarnated. This is a mystery because it is utterly unique. And such a mystery is not simple. But if people believe that the Son of God had a starting point in time, then he could never have a divine nature. Yet who can explain the wonder of the uncreated Son of God deigning to lower himself to take on human nature and become one of us? This is a Mystery of the highest order. No Christian can explain how it happened, though the Bible tells us clearly why it happened! But if any person claims to be able to explain how anything about God, the Son, and the Holy Spirit happens, they are telling you about a god of their own imagining – an explainable god – a god that conforms to sinful, mortal ideas about logic – a god made in human image, in other words.

Psalm 97 in its entirety would deal nicely with your question as it deals with the LORD [yhwh] reigning, but note its different uses of this word, ‘Lord’ in verses 5- 6 :

“The hills melted like wax at the presence of the LORD, at the presence of the Lord of the whole earth. The heavens declare his righteousness, and all the people see his glory.”

Well, both the name and the title of God (as Lord) are stated there. Yet 1 Cor. 8:6 tells us that there is only one Lord of all the earth, and that is Jesus Christ. Further, Christ is the righteousness of God, (‘King of righteousness’ Heb. ch. 7 & 1 Cor. 1:30) and the glory of God – in visible form (John 1:14). And Paul adds (1 Cor. 17:47) that “The first man [Adam] is of the earth, earthy; the second man [Jesus Christ] is the Lord from heaven.” Two natures found in the one incarnated Word of God. Amazing, but clearly and simply stated throughout the scriptures, yet beyond the ability of mere man to explain how that could be.

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    It's always fascinating that when traditional adherents start off explaining a trinity, they end up with, 'it's a mystery!' It's fascinating b/c the bible doesn't share this mystery concept at all but speaks quite plainly and coherently about the man Jesus and his God.
    – steveowen
    Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 4:12
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    @steveowen I'm so pleased you're fascinated. The subject of God is eternally fascinating, and no human on earth (bar Jesus) has ever been able to plumb the depths of the enormity of the nature of the one true God. I'm always saddened by people claiming to be able to explain everything about God. They are trying to give the impression that they are on a par with the Almighty, are they not?
    – Anne
    Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 8:10
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    @steveowen You confidently claim that now (and you would, if you were a Mormon or a Jehovah's Witness etc) but consider how billions on earth will react when the heavens depart as a scroll, and every mountain and hill are moved out of their places, and people cry to the mountains and the rocks, 'Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth upon the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb, for the great day of his wrath is come; and who shall be able to stand?' Revelation 6:16-17 Is 'your man, Jesus' THAT Jesus?
    – Anne
    Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 8:25
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    @steveowen As you believe in annihilationism, there can be no terrors for such as those who you think won't get resurrected. It's only because ALL the dead, the great and the small, get raised to stand before the Judgment Throne, and those not in the Lamb's book of Life get cast into the eternally burning sulphuric fire, that Rev. 6 shows such terror while they're still alive on earth. Rev. 20:11-15. I will not debate this with you.
    – Anne
    Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 8:47
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    No, sorry, you have it wrong. I'm not debating, just pointing our the word left for us which explains a judgement as a part of salvation - and not simply a another way of saying death! There is no everlasting fire - that is nonsense as explained already in another answer.
    – steveowen
    Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 8:55

Following curiousdanni's answer, I would also like to add on an important passage in understanding why there might be unclear in the dual nature of Jesus: Philippians 2:5-7.

In this passage it's explained that although Jesus was equal to God in nature, so it would not be robbery to be equal with God (robbery like claiming a more advantaged person's belongings), but on earth He didn't act via His divine nature; He acted as an example of a human in unity with God, as humans were meant to be, and as Christians should be. So you only see His human nature at work, but due to His love for God, you won't see the self-seeking human nature overpower God's will.

At any point, He could access any part of God's power or authority, including turning stones into bread (Matthew 4:1-4) or asking for an army of angels to fight for him (Matthew 26:52-54), but He didn't. Both times His reasoning not to was that it wasn't the Father's will.
(Although there is the concept of God having a perfect will and a permissive will, Jesus always did the perfect will. The army would have appeared, despite the request violating what God's perfect will was, but that's not the point. What's of note is that Jesus said He would ask for it.)

But to say Jesus is only a conduit for the Father and has no innate divine nature is not accurate; Jesus simply refused to do things by His divine nature, as it would be a useless example for His followers to follow.

There are several times where Jesus equates Himself with God (notably, "I and the Father are one", John 10:29-30), and outside of Paul's recognition in Philippians, there's the temptation Satan gave, "if you be the Son of God, command these stones to turn to bread" (Matthew 4:1-4)... not "ask the Father to turn these stones into bread".
Satan recognized the Son of God can do that by Himself. Wouldn't be much of a temptation if Jesus knew He couldn't do it.
When you consider what Satan is actually asking for, it doesn't seem unreasonable on a human level, to meet a legitimate human need. The key is looking at the spiritual side and what Jesus could possibly be violating by making use of His divine nature; prioritizing His human nature over God's plan.

That's how Christians are meant to use God's power or authority; not by being divine, nor by deserving it by doing good works, or from lack of sin, but by being entitled to it by their relationship to God (John 16:23, Romans 8:16-17), and knowing God's will in that situation. We are God's children, and by reasoning of that, heirs to God's authority and power as Jesus is.

Much like a lawyer acting in the name of his client, you cannot override your client's will... at least not when your client is omniscient and will immediately countermand your misuse of their authority. Although I doubt most Christians want to be asking for legions of angels, or that most would have faith to, i.e. know God's will in a scenario, the fact is Christians can (John 14:12-14, John 20:23, Mark 16:15-20).

  • You use John 10:30 "I and the Father are one" as evidence that “Jesus equates Himself with God.” I assume with “equates” you are not referring to Phil 2:6, which refers to “equality with God,” which I would describe as qualitative sameness. I assume you say that Jesus is numerically the same as God. I did a quick search on the phrase “are one” and found that Jesus prayed that His disciple “be one,” just as the Father and the Son “are one” (John 17:22). And he who plants and he who waters “are one” (1 Cor 3:8). Given these, do you still think your interpretation of John 10:30 is valid?
    – Andries
    Commented Nov 4, 2021 at 13:35
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    Numerically? I'm not sure what you're asking... if you're asking how the Godhead is "three in one" and yet distinct personalities, not to be equated numerically? For example, blasphemy against the Holy Spirit is treated as different to blasphemy against God, Mark 3:28-29, a distinction. Yet through Jesus was the world created, Hebrews 1:2.
    – Phi
    Commented Nov 5, 2021 at 14:17
  • An often-overlooked claim to be God happened when Jesus, referring to Himself, told the Pharisees "One greater than the Temple is here". We miss that in ancient times the only entity greater than a temple was the deity whose temple it was -- which means Jesus just told them that they were talking with YHWH-Elohim!
    – Traildude
    Commented Apr 29 at 20:50

It is impossible to mix the human and divine nature into a third composite nature .. it would not make sense. To mix the finite with the infinite leads to a massive confusion, and leads to the whole becoming infinite.

As a man Jesus died upon a cross, his divine nature could not and did not die on the cross; as a man he was tempted by the devil, his divine nature could not be tempted; as a man he ate and drank and fell asleep (on one famous occasion in a boat, Mark 4:38-41), his divine nature didn't need food or drink, and never slumbers nor sleeps, Psalm 121:4.

When he said "Come unto me.. and I will give you rest" (Matt 11:28); "Today you will be with me in paradise" (Luke 23:43); "How often would I have gathered your children together as a hen gathers her chicks under her wing (Luke 13:34) and in scores of other places, he could say these things only because he was, and is, God.

[But, even better still, Jesus is the great and only mediator between God and man, fulfilling the laws demands on behalf of his people, taking away the curse of the law, being a "friend" with God because he is God, and a friend of sinners because he is a human, and as a man he has kept all the laws demands and suffered in their place.]

"And the Word was God ... and the Word was made flesh" - John 1:1 & 1:14

"God was manifest in the flesh" - 1 Timothy 3:16

"... the gospel of God ... concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh; and declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead" - Romans 1:1-4.

  • I've always loved John 1:1 in the Greek because the force of it, "καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος" is "And GOD is what the Word was being". It's an assertion about the nature of the Logos, that He is GOD through and through and nothing else and not the least bit less than GOD.
    – Traildude
    Commented Apr 29 at 20:46

To start explaining any two natures, it is important to explain what I see in the scriptures about the natures.


God made humanity on the sixth day- a specific point in time. He formed dust and then blew into the nostrils breath of life. Genesis 2:7 explains that only then does the man become a “living being” (some translations say “soul”).

Note: Man called the “living being” consists of the formed dust and the breath of life/spirit. Here are more references on that.

  • “Remember, O God, that my life is but a breath; “ Job 7:7
  • “But it is the spirit in a person, the breath of the Almighty,” Job 32:8
  • "Has not the one God made you? You belong to him in body and spirit." Malachi 2:15
  • (Valley of Dry Bones) “ ‘This is what the Sovereign Yahweh says to these bones: I will make breath enter you, and you will come to life… I will put breath in you, and you will come to life’…. I looked, and tendons and flesh appeared on them and skin covered them, but there was no breath in them. Then he said to me, ‘Prophesy to the breath; prophesy, son of man, and say to it, ‘This is what the Sovereign Yahweh says: Come, breath, from the four winds and breathe into these slain, that they may live.’ So I prophesied as he commanded me, and breath entered them; they came to life and stood up on their feet—a vast army.” Ezekiel 37:5-6,8-10
  • “…the body without the spirit is dead…” James 2:26
  • “[An unmarried woman’s] aim is to be devoted to the Lord in both body and spirit.” 1 Corinthians 7:34
  • The apostles refer to the body as a tent, which is a temporary dwelling. They talk about leaving the tent (death) and being with the Lord and make statements of “living IN the body ”. It is important that you read the following passages before you continue with this post: 2 Peter 1:13, 2 Corinthians 5:1-10 and Philippians 1:22-24.

Note: There can be a body but without the spirit component it is just a “tent” or “the slain”. The “life” is “a breath”. The “spirit in a person” is the “breath of the Almighty”. It is the part that can be away from the tent of the body and be conscious to “be with the Lord”. So the conscious “you” is IN the body, it is not the body itself. We can say the spirit lives in the body. We see this to be true in the cases of the death of Jesus and Stephen; as they are dying, they commend their spirit up.


Yes. This is what Hebrews 10:5 records

“Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said: ‘Sacrifice and offering you did not desire, but a body you prepared for me; ’”.

In this passage, Christ is addressing God. God prepared Christ’s body much like He was responsible for forming the first man Adam from dust. We have to keep in mind, a human body born to a woman requires an equal part of chromosomes from the mother and the father to develop in the womb. This is why Mary questioned how would she be with child if she had not known a man. The answer provided was that the Holy Spirit would come upon her- God provided what was need for the body prepared for Christ much like he provided what was need for the first man Adam to be a living being.


We know from Colossians 1:22 that Christ has an actual “physical body”—not just something that looked like a human body. Christ, just like Adam, did not have an earthly father yet both are considered human. Interestingly they are both referred to as “the son of God” (Luke 3:38; John 10:36)—most likely because God provided what was needed in creating their body. In this way they both represent a start of something. But unlike Adam, Jesus was the only begotten Son.

Note: The body of our ancestor Adam did not require the dna of a mother and father and Jesus’ body did not require an earthly father. They both mark a start of something new. In being called “begotten” and “firstborn” we pick up on a distinction to Christ’s sonship with God but His humanity is still as valid as we consider Adam’s humanity. Yahweh God was Jesus’ Father.


Just like any other human Jesus was hungry, thirsty, tired, cried and had to rely on God. The difference was that Jesus understood the necessity to rely on God and cultivated this relationship with God. He prayed and said/did only what He saw His Father doing: John 5:19

‘Very truly I tell you, the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees his Father doing, because whatever the Father does the Son also does."

This part is important because in relying and only doing what He was told by His Father is how Christ kept himself pure. He could be the lamb without spot, the righteous one to die for the unrighteous. Just like us, Jesus was tempted in every way, but unlike us, He did not sin (Hebrews 4:15). This is only possible because, unlike us, He exclusively followed the lead of the Spirit (who is God). Paul understood this concept when he wrote:

Romans 8:4

“… that the righteous requirement of the law might be fully met in us, who do not live according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.”

Jesus constantly denied his flesh when tempted— which we understand to be “putting the flesh to death”. Jesus submitted Himself in obedience to His Father (Hebrews 5:7). As Paul says

Romans 6:16

“when you offer yourselves to someone as obedient slaves, you are slaves of the one you obey—whether you are slaves to sin, which leads to death, or to obedience, which leads to righteousness?”

The body of the one who sins is ruled by sin (Romans 6:6,12). But because of Christ’ reverent submission to the Father, Jesus was righteous. Which beckons the question,


Paul is clear in Romans 5:12 that sin entered the WORLD through one man, Adam (please note that it does not say sin entered mankind). When sin entered the world, death entered through sin, and in this way death came to all “because all sinned”. We die not because sin is passed down through the flesh as descendants of Adam (something many believe). We die because each of us has sinned.

So if Jesus didn’t sin, how was it possible for Him to die? The only reason Jesus could die was because “ “He himself bore our sins” in his body " (1 Peter 2:24). Jesus experienced the separation sin causes between humanity and God (Isaiah 59:2) which leads to death. It is ONLY then that He exclaims as He is dying, “Father, why have you forsaken me?” when previously Jesus said in John 8:29,

“The one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what pleases him.


Over and over scripture is clear that our bodies are what is “mortal” (can die). It says nothing about the spirit of man dying.

  • “Was it not with those who sinned, whose bodies perished in the wilderness?” Hebrews 3:17
  • “he who raised Christ from the dead will also give life to your mortal bodies ...” Romans 8:11
  • “and the tombs broke open. The bodies of many holy people who had died were raised to life” Matthew 27:52
  • (the girl who died) “But he took her by the hand and said, “My child, get up!” Her spirit returned, and at once she stood up.” Luke 8:54-55
  • “I tell you, my friends, do not be afraid of those who kill the body and after that can do no more. But I will show you whom you should fear: Fear him who, after your body has been killed, has authority to throw you into hell. Yes, I tell you, fear him.” Luke 12:4-5

As for Jesus: “He was put to death in the body but made alive in the Spirit.” 1 Peter 3:18



There is proof that He is divine/God based on the accounts in the gospel and by the apostles.


  1. John says of Christ: “This is the one I spoke about when I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.’” John 1:5 (Mary gave birth to Jesus after John)
  2. He said He was going back to Him: “I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.” John 16:28


  1. He had glory with the Father before the world began: “And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.” John 17:5

    (Also a point of existing before ministry on earth)

  2. He said He is one with the Father: “I and the Father are one.” John 10:30

  3. (Jesus praying) "All I have is yours, and all you have is mine." John 17:10


  1. He said of Himself the very words Yahweh proclaimed of Himself: ““Very truly I tell you… before Abraham was born, I am!” John 8:58 (see Exodus 3:14)
  2. He forgave sins
  3. Demons and creation obey Him
  4. Worshiped (Matthew 14:33; Hebrews 1:6)
  5. Claiming Himself Lord of the Sabbath (Sabbath is a time to acknowledge God as the one who created – Exodus 16:23; 20:11)
  6. Claimed to be “Son of God” making Himself “equal to God” as explained in John 5:18


  1. John 12:41 After quoting Isaiah 6, John writes “Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus’ glory and spoke about him.” Isaiah tells us who he saw in that chapter (Isaiah 6:5)

“ “Woe to me!” I cried. “I am ruined! For I am a man of unclean lips, and I live among a people of unclean lips, and my eyes have seen the King, Yahweh of hosts.

  1. 1 Peter 3:10-15-

Verses 10-13 Peter is quoting Psalm 34:12-16 which was referring to Yahweh.

Verses 14 and 15 are set up as a parallel to Isaiah 8:12-13 where it says

"Do not fear their threats or be in dread. Yahweh of hosts shall be your fear".

In Peter’s letter he commands us to revere/fear Christ as Lord.

  1. 1 Peter 2:3 “…now that you have tasted that the Lord is good.

This is the same phrasing of Psalm 34:8

Taste and see that Yahweh is good.”

  1. 1 Corinthians 10:1-4 Paul states he does not want the reader to be “ignorant of the fact” and then states about the Israelites who left Egypt

“…they drank from the spiritual rock that accompanied them, and that rock was Christ.

Yahweh is credited with leading the Israelites through the wilderness and providing them with water from the rock. Yahweh was clear in Isaiah 44:8

“…You are my witnesses. Is there any God besides me? No, there is no other Rock; I know not one.

  1. Matthew 2:6 is a quote of Micah 5:2

“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.” ("origins" also translated "going forth")

  1. Luke 1:68 Zechariah prophesied saying

“ Praise be to the Lord, the God of Israel, because he has come to his people and redeemed them.”

  1. Matthew 1:22-23

“All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet: ‘The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel’ (which means ‘God with us’).”

  1. Mark 1:3, Matthew 3:3, Luke 3:4, John 1:23 are all quotes from Isaiah 40:3 which reads

“ A voice of one calling: “In the wilderness prepare the way for Yahweh; make straight in the desert a highway for our God.”

  1. Mark 1:2 is a quote of Malachi 3:1

“I will send my messenger, who will prepare the way before me. Then suddenly the Lord you are seeking will come to his temple; the messenger of the covenant, whom you desire, will come,” says Yahweh Almighty.”


Who we know as “Jesus” on the earth actually BECAME “nothing” by taking human form when he entered the world. That means He was something BEFORE entering the world. Paul tells us clearly what that means Philippians 2:6-7

“Who, BEING IN VERY NATURE GOD, did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage; rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to death— even death on a cross!”

Who He was before becoming “nothing/made in human likeness” is the “very nature God”. This can't refer to being "spirit" only because angels are spirits and are never referenced this way. Here is the definition of that Greek word "3444 morphḗ – properly, form (outward expression) that embodies essential (inner) substance so that the form is in complete harmony with the inner essence."

There is but ONE God- Yahweh. There is "No One like Yahweh our God" (Exodus 8:10). 1Samuel 2:2

"There is no one holy like Yahweh; there is no one besides you; there is no Rock like our God"

Based on the references of Yahweh credited to Christ, we need to look at what Jesus said about Himself after offense was taken when He “claimed [himself] to be God” (John 10:30-33).

“what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’?” John 10:36

Note: Jesus never denied point for which they were offended which they made clear.

“SET APART” from who?

  • The One “set apart” (Jesus was referring to Himself) was not of the angels because “to which of the angels did God say ‘You are my son’?” (Hebrews 1:5).
  • The one “set apart” is not of humanity because the Father did the setting apart before sending INTO the world. This "one" already existed.

Note: So this setting apart happens first in a different location than the world and it’s not among the angels or humanity.

This next passage clears this:

Hebrews 1:7-9

In speaking of the angels he says, “He makes his angels spirits, and his servants flames of fire.” But about the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever; a scepter of justice will be the scepter of your kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has set you above your companions by anointing you with the oil of joy.”

Yahweh God calls the Son “God”. Then Yahweh, the God of this Son, sets the Son above His companions. God of God? The next passage clarifies this seeming contradiction:

Hebrews 1:5

For to which of the angels did God ever say, “You are my Son; today I have become your Father”? Or again, “I will be his Father, and he will be my Son”?

Note: This last passage shows a definitive timing called “today”. And it states two things, the point in time Yahweh God becomes the Father and the point in time Christ becomes the Son. There is no doubt of the hierarchy of this relationship but it is important to recognize this hierarchy happened at a definitive point in time- it wasn’t always like this.

When this one who was “set apart” comes into the earth He calls Yahweh His Father because He is found in human likeness…

Hebrews 2:14

” Since the children have flesh and blood, [Jesus] too shared in their humanity “.

When he was found in human likeness, Jesus became our “companion” making Yahweh, whom He was set apart from, His God as well.

John 16:28

“I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The Jesus people saw and touched in the body had a spirit inside (the consciousness part of “humanity”) who was from Yahweh Himself…as in OF the “very nature God”. This would explain how He is before Abraham, how He is one with His Father Yahweh, how He had glory with Yahweh before the world began, how He is worshiped, how He is on the throne with God in Revelation, etc.

It also gives a better understanding of the following three verses:

Colossians 2:9

“For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form,"

Colossians 1:19

“For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him,”

2 Corinthians 5:19

“that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ,"

Again, a human is a spirit that lives in a body. Part of Yahweh God, who is Spirit, lived inside the “body prepared” to carry out the plan of reconciliation.

Jesus modeled the relationship mankind is to have with God. It is only when the “one set aside” enters the world with the body prepared for Him that He becomes “the Son”, and God who is known to the Israelites as "Yahweh” becomes “The Father”. I don’t see evidence of Jesus pretending to be an infant all the while being fully aware or keeping certain knowledge from his “human mind”. But instead, in becoming nothing, He truly became a clean slate.

Luke 2:40

“ And the child grew and became strong; he was filled with wisdom, and the grace of God was on him.”

Luke 2:52

“ And Jesus grew in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and man.”

I will leave you with Christ’s words: “Don’t you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? … it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me;” John 14:10,11

  • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
    – curiousdannii
    Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 13:08
  • +1. Though the answer does go on a few tangents, it provides copious Bible references that are on-point to the question. Nice beginning for a new contributor. Commented Sep 20, 2021 at 12:52
  • @VanessaOrengaWhite You say that “Christ, just like Adam, did not have an earthly father.” You seem to say that He inherited DNA from Mary. Would it not be more logical to say that God created Him entirely afresh? Could that explain why He never sinned?
    – Andries
    Commented Nov 4, 2021 at 14:49
  • @VanessaOrengaWhite In my view: The Father begat the Son in the infinity beyond time and created the universe (all things) through His Son. His Son, before He was born as a human being, existed in the form of God and with equality with God. Since God is invisible, Jesus is the God of the Old Testament (YHVH). But the Son is not the Ultimate Reality, which is how dictionaries define the title "God." I wonder, given how I think of the Son, how much of your arguments that Jesus is God remains.
    – Andries
    Commented Nov 4, 2021 at 14:58
  • @VanessaOrengaWhite You say we die because each of us has sinned. No. After Adam and Eve sinned, God said that they will “return to the ground” (Gen 3:19). We die because Adam has sinned. In my view, death is not a penalty, it is a warning against the second death. In my view, God does not work on the deserve-system. He does not give us what we deserve: Whatever God does, He does to preserve life; even the second death.
    – Andries
    Commented Nov 4, 2021 at 16:04

Jesus himself spoke of the Father's presence within him.

Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things. (John 8:28, KJV)

But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. (John 10:38, KJV)

For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. (John 12:49, KJV)

Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. (John 14:10, KJV)

That the Father, who Jesus called "the only true God" (see John 17:3), was "in Christ" is further clarified in Paul's letter.

To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation. (2 Corinthians 5:19, KJV)

Hebrews chapter 10 has some special insight into the natures within Christ. Speaking of Christ's advent in Bethlehem, verse 5 says:

Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me: (Hebrews 10:5, KJV)

Whomever the "me" is in that verse clearly is distinct from the one identified by "the body."

Christ, as Michael the archangel in heaven--God's representative to His creation, came to earth, adopting human flesh, in order to place himself at our level; the level where he might reach us.

That the two natures within Christ, both the divine nature and the human nature, remained distinct and were not fully and indistinguishably/inseparably mixed together is further clarified as we understand Christ's mission.

Jesus Christ (Son of Man / Son of God) God (the Father)
Then was Jesus led up of the spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil. (Matthew 4:1, KJV) Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: (James 1:13, KJV)
For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly. . . . But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. (Romans 5:6, 8, KJV) Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, be honour and glory for ever and ever. Amen. (1 Timothy 1:17, KJV)
Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen. (1 Timothy 6:16, KJV)

Jesus was tempted, but God cannot be tempted.

Jesus died, but God is immortal.

Yet "God was in Christ."


There can be no question but that the presence of God within Christ constitutes a divine nature that is unlike Jesus' human nature as "the son of man." The Bible may not use the term "nature" in this context, but the presence of two separate entities is nonetheless addressed.

  • Christ, as Michael the archangel in heaven, what would you refer to in the Bible to support this idea. Jesus says otherwise if you allow John 17:3 and 20:17 to speak without complicated reasoning.
    – steveowen
    Commented Nov 29, 2022 at 1:37
  • @steveowen Who is the "me" in Hebrews 10:5? Next, check with Daniel 9:25 ("Messiah the Prince") and Daniel 10:21 ("Michael your prince"). It is rather uncomplicated to see that the Messiah is "Michael your prince."
    – Biblasia
    Commented Nov 29, 2022 at 3:27
  • 1
    So, 1 or two verses that you can use to contradict 30 others based on an imaginative connection. Being an angel or a God is not like us at all Heb 2:17 - that is the simple fact needing no conjecture. He also said he was not a spirit - after being raised. Does an angel not become spirit? Far too many problems with that idea you've presented. Shame really, you have a lot of it correct and are able to express it according to scripture not Ch Father additions as many here do.
    – steveowen
    Commented Nov 29, 2022 at 4:05
  • @steveowen I don't believe the Bible contradicts itself. Answer this yourself: "Who is 'me' in Hebrews 10:5?" Acknowledging that Jesus was the Son of Man (which isn't and cannot be God) in whom God dwelt (and "God" [Theos] is God), is simply to acknowledge what the Bible itself says. If you don't like the "1 or two verses," I could give more--but usually if something is the truth, only a few verses should suffice to show it and when people require a long list it is wise to become a little suspicious. Error hides in the multiplicity of words. Jesus is not "God the Son." But God was in him.
    – Biblasia
    Commented Nov 29, 2022 at 4:12
  • 1
    Yes, but Jesus states quite explicitly and consistently that he was a man - a human, another Adam. This cannot be said knowing he was also an archangel! Does he lie by mis-speaking? The Bible does not contradict, but you have now created a contradiction. (and the Apostles reinforce this human Jesus with no peep of being an angel.) It seems you are devising your own version of an unbiblical incarnation.
    – steveowen
    Commented Nov 29, 2022 at 4:20

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