Let me preface this by saying that I don't assume the Trinitarian viewpoint is any more or less reasonable than any other, this is a question out of curiosity brought up by things I read in another question.
In this question, about Jesus capacity to sin, in the comments of the main question you see one guy arguing that the question doesn't make sense from a Trinitarian point of view, since Jesus is God.
However, this answer gives some scriptural context that's quite interesting.
When Jesus prayed at Gethsemane against temptation not to let himself be arrested to be crucified (Luke 22:39-46). Being in agony until sweating like drops of blood should indicate great effort:
... ⁴⁰ And when he came to the place, he said to them, “Pray that you may not enter into temptation.” ⁴¹ And he withdrew from them about a stone's throw, and knelt down and prayed, ⁴² saying, “Father, if you are willing, remove this cup from me. Nevertheless, not my will, but yours, be done.” ⁴³ And there appeared to him an angel from heaven, strengthening him. ⁴⁴ And being in agony he prayed more earnestly; and his sweat became like great drops of blood falling down to the ground.
The text of interest here is
Father, if you are willing, remove this cup from me. Nevertheless, not my will, but yours, be done.
I think this plainly sets the stage for the viewpoint that, at least while Jesus was a human being, he was separate from God in some fundamental ways, such that
my will and
yours would be different.
Do Trinitarians view Jesus as having been a separate being from God while he was on Earth? If not, how do they interpret this text?