We read in Matt 27:57-60 (NIV), of the burial of Jesus arranged by Joseph of Arimathea:
As evening approached, there came a rich man from Arimathea, named Joseph, who had himself become a disciple of Jesus. Going to Pilate, he asked for Jesus’ body, and Pilate ordered that it be given to him. Joseph took the body, wrapped it in a clean linen cloth, and placed it in his own new tomb that he had cut out of the rock.
We also read in Isaiah 53:9 (NASB):
And His grave was assigned with wicked men, Yet He was with a rich man in His death, Because He had done no violence, Nor was there any deceit in His mouth.
It would require a lot of labor and money to cut a tomb of standard size out of the rock, and its owner Joseph was admittedly a rich man. As such, the prophesy of Isiah in 53:9 stood fulfilled on the burial of Jesus who had died in the company of two wicked men. But strangely, none of the Gospels mentions the fulfillment of a prophesy here.
My question therefore is: Why, according to Catholic Church is the burial of Jesus in a rich man's tomb not mentioned as fulfillment of OT prophesy ?