One poster ask me the above question. Does anyone have a scriptural answer? I have one and will post it soon.

  • I am a little miffed at this question. The Jews did not believe Jesus was even the Messiah (that is why their leadership crucified him!). Why would you look to them as an authority on the Trinity doctrine? (What denomination is the person who gave you this question btw? This seems like a question from a denomination that doesnt understand the issues relating to this)
    – Adam
    May 24 at 22:04
  • I was going to downvote this question, however, i have decided that in light of the context in which it is being asked...ie the person asking it doesnt understand the reality of Jesus crucifiction (the jews didnt believe he was the messiah), i have given it a thumbs up so that can be cleared up. It is only in more recent times that we have Messianic Jews who do believe Jesus was the messiah. Traditional Jews do not believe this (that is my understanding at least)
    – Adam
    May 24 at 22:10
  • @Adam The person that ask the question I believe to be a unitarian. I think it's a valid question that needs to be addressed. Let me put the question another way. "So Adam, since Jesus is the Son of God on what basis do you trinitarians come to the conclusion that He is actually God? How is claiming to be the Son of God equal to Him being God? The question is not interested in what the Jews think today. How would you answer the question?
    – Mr. Bond
    May 24 at 22:40
  • @Adam, I think you're misreading the question. It doesn't say that Jews thought Jesus was the Son of God. My understanding of it is as a question of whether Jews would interpret a claim of being the Son of God as equivalent to a claim of being God. May 25 at 17:03
  • The answer is simple, you know, God is childless and not begotten. The question is why don't you believe it? If you cannot believe in the little things, how can you believe the big things? May 26 at 2:07

My answer! The Jews have what is called "idioms." One of those idioms is called the "son of" idiom and can be found both in the Old Testament and New Testament.

For example in the OT you have "Sons of prophets." (1 Kings 20:35; 2 Kings 2:3, refer to men belonging to a prophetic band. "Prophethood" (that which distinguishes "prophets" from "non-prophets") is the very nature that unities the "sons of the prophets" with their metaphorical fathers, "the prophets."

The same holds true for the following examples. "Sons of the goldsmiths at Nehemiah 3:31. Sons of the troop (2 Chronicles 25:13) are men of the army. Sons of affliction (Proverbs 31:5) are afflicted ones. I think you get the idea.

In the NT, "Son of peace (Luke 10:6 refers to a peaceful person. Who was the Son of perdition?" (John 17:12, 2 Thessalonians 2:3) is the lost one, This is applied to Judas and the antichrist. One more, "Sons of thunder" was the appellative applied by Jesus to James and John at Mark 3:17 because it signified something outstanding about their character.

What about Jesus Christ who identified Himself on numerous occasions as "the Son of Man" and as "the Son of God." The idiom DOES intend the meaning of a shared nature between ANY father, and his son and thus between "THE Father and THE Son."

The "Son of God" title is entirely consistent with trinitarian doctrine which states explicitly that the Son is of the same NATURE of the Father. Christ really IS the "son" of God and therefore, BY DEFINITION shares the distinctive nature of his father just as ALL sons bear the distinctive nature of their fathers.

That Jesus is ALSO the "Son of Man" (obviously in the metaphorical sense, given the fact that his actual father was NOT any man) is also consistent with the doctrine of the trinity which claims that Christ was indeed truly a man.

There was a reason why the Apostle John ends his gospel account by stating his authorial intent at John 20:30-31. "Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; vs31, but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is (1) Christ/Messiah, (2) the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name."

If you read the context of the following verses you will notice a pattern or trend in what the Jews conclude by Jesus' words. John 5:18, John 10:30, John 19:7 and the trial record at Matthew 26:57-65. It boils down to, "Are you the Christ/Messiah, and are you the Son of God?"

This is the question the high priest Caiaphas said to Jesus at Matthew 26:63. "And the high priest said to Him, "I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us whether (1) You are the Christ/Messiah, (2) the Son of God." Caiaphas puts Jesus under oath to swear as to His true identity. Jesus answers at Luke 22:70 by saying, "Yes, I am." (NASB)

Most of the information regarding Jewish "idioms" is taken from the following site. http://faculty.gordon.edu/hu/bi/ted_hildebrandt/OTeSources/23a-Prophets/Text/Articles/Bess-SonOfGod-GTJ.pdf

The article was written in 1965 and I only had some written notes of it from many, many years ago. I decided to look it up and I found the complete article. He also deals with the terms "Firstborn" and the term "Only Begotten."

  • Great answer Mr Bond +1 from me. Slight correction was needed, its Luke 22:70 (not 26:70) and i have also edited text...statement from Jesus is "you say that I am". Only minor changes and do not adversely affect the answer.
    – Adam
    May 25 at 9:31
  • @Adam NASB says “yes I am”
    – Kris
    May 25 at 12:33
  • 1
    @OneGodtheFather And what proof do you have Caiaphas misunderstood the title? The Jews did not misunderstand what Jesus claimed. John 5:18, Jews claim Jesus was making Himself equal with God. John 8:5, Jesus claims to have existed before Abraham was born. John 10:30, Jesus claims to be equal in nature with His Father. Why else do the Jews accuse Him of blasphemy at vs33? John 19:7, Jews say He made Himself out the Son of God. Matthew 26:65 Caiaphas accuses Him of blasphemy. Now think, if the Jews misunderstood Jesus at His trial, why did they bring up the Law of blasphemy at Leviticus 24:16?
    – Mr. Bond
    May 25 at 20:51
  • 1
    @OneGodtheFather No one that I know of has ever been accused of blasphemy, let alone killed for claiming to be the Messiah. People have been claiming to be the Messiah from Jesus' time even to today. The Jews were expecting the Messiah but when Jesus swore that He was the Christ and the Son of God the Jews did not believe Him. Despite John 20:30-31 and God His Father giving His Son credibility, Luke 9:35 Of course they misunderstood Him on some things but that is not an excuse. His disciples misunderstood as well but in the end they believed Jesus was who He said He was. Read Acts and beyond.
    – Mr. Bond
    May 26 at 0:32
  • 1
    @Kris the interlinear says "Ὑμεῖς λέγετε ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι (You say that i am) Indeed even your own JW interlinear says Ὑμεῖς (you) λέγετε (are saying ) ὅτι (that) ἐγώIεἰμι (I am). Do you not read your own watchtower interlinear?
    – Adam
    May 27 at 9:25

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.