John 5:18 says

"Because of this, the Jews tried all the harder to kill Him. Not only was He breaking the Sabbath, but He was even calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God."

Biblical Unitarians typically interpret this passage as the Jews being incorrect in claiming Jesus was making Himself equal with God, as a theme in John is people not understanding what Jesus is saying or who He is (this is made clearer at John 8).

Do Trinitarians agree that at this point in John's Gospel the Jews had adequate grounds to make the claim that Jesus was making Himself equal with God?

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    There are various elements at play here: the event itself, the Gospel's account thereof, the evangelist's own interpretation of his own words, and the reader's interpretation of the evangelist's words. – Lucian May 19 at 19:46
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    @One God the Father. The short answer is yes. I just posted this answer today which is a similar question. hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/60548/… Let me know what you think? – Mr. Bond May 19 at 22:19
  • @Mr.Bond Maybe re-tool it and answer this one as well? – One God the Father May 20 at 0:10
  • @OneGodtheFather What do you mean to "re-tool" it? I gave a cogent answer. How about I add this fact to the Jews claiming that Jesus was calling God His own Father. At Luke 2. Jesus was missing for three days and His parents were worried, vs46. And all that heard Him were amazed at His understanding and His answers, vs47 Jesus says at vs49, "Why is it that you were looking for Me? Did you not know that I had to be in MY FATHER'S HOUSE." Compare to John 5:18 – Mr. Bond May 20 at 0:27
  • @Mr.Bond I mean modify it to answer this question. – One God the Father May 20 at 1:48

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