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Is it possible for God’s “spirit” ( or whatever I should call it ), that I believe to be Infinite, to be fully in a Finite body? (Beleive me I'm not a hater I'm just searching for the truth, whatever it may be).

Answers from a Trinitarian perspective please.

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  • Hamza, this site is a bit different. It's not OK to ask "do you think...", because that would be just people's opinions, but it is OK to ask "do Christians believe..." or "how do Christians explain..." I would recommend editing the question. – DJClayworth Mar 30 at 14:37
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    @DJClayworth , Okay Thanks – Hamza Mar 30 at 15:39
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    "whatever I should call it" The term you're using here matters. Can you expand on what you mean by this term? – One God the Father Mar 30 at 17:20
  • I have edited the question to make it viable and to reflect what I believe the questioner wants to know. Hamza if that was not what you meant, please say so (Trinitarians are about 98% of Christians.) – DJClayworth Apr 3 at 14:47
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Yes, according to mainstream Christian belief God did fully inhabit a human body.

It is key to Christian belief that God the Son did incarnate as a human being, Jesus of Nazareth. A key part of this is that he "humbled himself", meaning that he became less than he was. He gave up his infiniteness, his omnipotence and his omniscience to become like we are, limited. However he stays in nature God, but without the attributes of infinity, omnipotence and omniscience (and others). He also made himself totally subservient to God the Father, meaning that even while being God he had to rely totally on the Father, and can thus be a model and example for us who have to do likewise. After his resurrection from the dead God the Son ascended to heaven, returning to his infinity, omnipotence and omniscience.

A key Bible passage here is Philippians chapter 2.

It's probably worth pointing out that God the Father and God the Holy Spirit did not incarnate, and so remained infinite etc.

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  • It is probably worth pointing out that Phil 2 is a subject of enormous debate. – One God the Father Mar 30 at 17:08
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    The question isn't whether God fully inhabited a human body, it's whether God's 'spirit' (whatever is meant by this) can be fully in a human body. This seems a different question, and more tricky, IMO. – One God the Father Mar 30 at 17:12
  • Thanks, but as Anthony said I'm asking whether it's even possible for something Infinite to enter a finite body? – Hamza Mar 30 at 18:26
  • When God became a man he did not cease to be fully God: I mean he continued to fill the whole universe as well. He did not in any sense cease to be God with the full attributes of God. – Andrew Shanks Mar 30 at 19:13
  • @Athony Burg phillipian 2 is only subject to debate from those who simply refuse to believe what is clearly written and being read. The trouble with the vast majority of non trinitarians is that they determine that one is not allowed to develop doctrine based on Biblical themes (and combining Phillipians 2 with Isaiah 43,43,&44 +Revelation), rather it must come from specific keywords. This is an untenable point of view because for one, these same people have no proof that any of the Bible is even truth...we have no one alive who actually saw Jesus and no one alive who can say "here is God"! – Adam Mar 30 at 21:29
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No. This is the paradox presented by traditional understanding. That Jesus* could be fully human and fully God. The scriptures show no such conundrum, but express Jesus as the 'form' or 'image' of God. Thus requiring him to not be 'infinite' as you suggest it must imply.

There is nothing 'infinite' in a man who could die. There is nothing 'fully God' in a man who can be tempted, or potentially sin as Jesus' prayer in Heb 5:7 demonstrates.

During the days of Jesus' life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission.

There is nothing in the text describing Jesus somehow stopping having the attributes of God. How can God not be God? Jesus is either God or he is not.

Jesus' own words were that he was a man John 8:40

As it is, you are looking for a way to kill me, a man who has told you the truth that I heard from God. Abraham did not do such things.

If we choose to make him also God, this is not of the text. (why is Jesus, allegedly God, receiving truth from God?)

There are simply too many strange paradoxes created by making up things the bible never speaks of. How can Jesus rely totally on the Father if he is God all along? He had to be made like us in every respect - being a God/man is not like us at all!

Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God

Notice Jesus is also serving God!

We are told Jesus was 'filled with the spirit' Luke 4:1. God cannot be filled with spirit - He IS spirit, Jesus said he was not spirit. Luke 24:39

The question appropriately highlights the conundrum we are faced with when using traditional understanding to interpret the bible - rather than simply reading what it says. The OP is correct in calling Jesus 'a finite body', mortal - which is what Jesus had prior to his resurrection - then he was raised immortal.

...put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit... 1 Pet 3:18

*assuming 'Jesus' is the body spoken of re the tag, 'life-of-Jesus'

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  • If what you say above is true then perhaps you would care to resolve the conflict your view has with Isaiah...particularly 9:6 "For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given, and the government will be upon His shoulders. And He will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace" – Adam Mar 31 at 11:28
  • What do you mean 'if'? Scripture is my guide, not other sources of "mainstream Christian belief". No conflict, biblicalunitarian.com/videos/isaiah-9-6 – user47952 Mar 31 at 19:25

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