Why do many bishops oppose the Vatican ban on blessing same-sex marriages?

Question

Why do bishops (catholic) in some dioceses say that the Pope is outdated and ignoring scripture by refusing same-sex couples the sacrament of marriage, i.e. making their union holy. (Example). They believe that blessing these couples is supported by scripture, but I am not sure where they find support for that claim. One priest in my city says God is "I am" not "I was", and as our understanding develops we ought to see that we should extend our blessings to even "non-traditional" marriages.

Since it's not just one or two priests accusing the Pope, but rather many bishops including the president of the bishops' conference in Germany, I don't think this can easily be dismissed as a heretical priest or something like that. I would therefore like to know why they believe it is justified and in line with Scripture to extend the sacrament of marriage to homosexual marriages.

Answer 1

Why are there heretics? Why don't they think acts of sodomy are sins? Because of sin and ignorance, the "mystery of iniquity" (2 Thes. 2:7).

Specifically, though, because they think condemning homosexual acts (like condemning acts of contraception, adultery, divorce, and concubinage) is not "inclusive", "welcoming", "compassionate", "pastoral", or "civil".

Here is how some U.S. bishops unfaithful to Church teaching on homosexuality or LGBT ideology put it:

• Calls it "clericalism":
  During the 2018 sex abuse crisis, Cardinal Cupich claimed that the real issue was “clericalism” and not homosexuality. Cupich told America, a liberal Catholic newspaper, that blaming the abuse on homosexuality was a “diversion” away from clericalism. (LifeSiteNews)
• Opposes Church teaching on intrinsically evil acts:
  McElroy also said the Church “should not” refer to homosexual acts as intrinsically disordered, which he believes is an example of “very destructive language.” Rather, the Church should use “language that is inclusive.” (America)
• Supports giving Communion to those in public sin:
  In July 2017, Bishop McGrath told practicing homosexuals in his diocese that he will not refuse Holy Eucharist or a Catholic funeral to them so long as they request them “in good faith.” McGrath claimed this was the “compassionate and pastoral” thing to do. (LifeSiteNews)
• Doesn't think civil law should uphold natural law:
  Following the Supreme Court’s decision [Obergefell v. Hodges] to legalize gay “marriage” in 2015, [D.C.'s] Archbishop Gregory provided a weak and ambiguous statement, emphasizing how there must remain “obligations of civility toward one another” going forward. Instead of affirming the evil of homosexual acts, Archbishop Wilton Gregory simply said the Church’s teaching does not change, and the ruling merely “confers a civil entitlement to some people who could not claim it before.” (The Georgia Bulletin)

courtesy: Faithful Shepherds

Answer 2

Why do bishops (catholic) in some dioceses say that the Pope is outdated and ignoring scripture by refusing same-sex couples the sacrament of marriage ...

I don't know if this is simply a misunderstanding:

I'm living in Germany (just like the Bishop mentioned in your link) and last week I was talking to other people of my parish.

It turned out that (the German translation of) the Vatican's statement can be understood in different ways. The two extremes are:

1. Same-sex couples cannot have a sacramemental marriage
2. The blessing at the end of the Holy Mass excludes people who live together with a partner of the same sex

(Of course, some meanings "in the middle" are also possible.)

These are two completely different possible meanings of exactly the same statement.

It seems to me that many people here in Germany understood the statement of the Vatican in a way that comes quite close to the second meaning!

I doubt that the bishop mentioned in the link really thinks that something similar to a sacrament should be introduced in the Catholic Church.

It is just speculation, but I think that the bishop understood the Vatican's statement in the second way (just like many Germans did) and actually wants to say that he refuses that second meaning of the statement.

Unfortunately, in the last few years it happened very often that statements of German Catholics (both statements of bishops and lays!) were mis-understood in the Vatican as well as by the press in countries that do not speak German.

As a consequence, the press in the other countries falsely reported that some German Catholics made a certain statement.