Following on from both of the two recent questions regarding the inheritance or transmission of 'original' or 'inbred' sin, from generation to generation, I am interested in the Trinitarian, Protestant, Reformed view of how this sin is dealt with in the righteousness of God, in Christ.
For he hath made him sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. [2 Corinthians 5:21 KJV (italics removed)]
I am aware that, on what, for the moment, I may call 'the fringes' of Reformed Protestantism (this is anecdotal, I cannot link) there is a view that this was a 'creative act of God'. They say he 'created' sin within Christ during crucifixion when Jesus offered himself as the Sin-bearer.
This has significant implications, not the least of which is the fact that such a 'creative act' seems not to actually involve the sin of the world since it is the 'creation' of 'new' sin.
Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. [John 1:29, KJV]
The verb used in the original is ποιέω (poieo) Strong 4160 which has a very broad spectrum of concept covering both of our English words 'make' and 'do'. It can be viewed, in its entire spectrum of meaning and usage, as 'effect' or 'effectively cause'.
Thus God 'effected' sin in Christ at Golgotha. My understanding of this is that he, as God Almighty, saw it to be so. He viewed the sin of the world as being within the Christ. Thus, in the view of the Judge of all the world, it was contained : contained within Christ's humanity as he suffered.
Thus when Jesus Christ died, sin was removed within himself, within his own humanity.
Effectively, sin was destroyed in him, when he died, and was righteously removed from the world, as to the liability of its having been introduced.
... our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed [Romans 6:6, KJV]
Is this (the effective causing of sin) the understanding of the generality of the Trinitarian, Protestant, Reformed view?
Or is what I have experienced, on the 'fringes' (the 'creation' of sin), the general view?
Or is there another, generally held view altogether (among Trinitarian, Reformed, Protestantism) which I have not, here, covered?
EDIT NOTE : I have deliberately removed the italics from the KJV quote of 2 Corinthians 5:21 - 'to be' [sic] as they are not in the Greek text and they change the meaning. 'Made' sin and 'made' to be sin are two different things conceptually. There is no copular verb in the text in that place, in the TR.