Can the interpretation be: God is saying God's foreknowledge is justified?

Or "not caused thee(Abraham?) to know"(Augustine), or "caused others to know(Lange), or "anthropomorphically that thou (Abraham) fearest God, Elohim (Calvin)"? - Pulpit Comm.)

Or yet could there be another interpretation of the text revealing All-knowing God's motive?

Text Gen. 22:12:

ESV -He said, “Do not lay your hand on the boy or do anything to him, for now I know that you fear God, seeing you have not withheld your son, your only son, from me.”

YLT - and He saith, 'Put not forth thine hand unto the youth, nor do anything to him, for now I have known that thou art fearing God, and hast not withheld thy son, thine only one, from Me.'

  • A related question.
    – user46876
    Jun 16, 2020 at 22:20
  • As with the vast hordes of such questions stored in the archives of the website (many obscured from most readers as they are closed) this is an attempt to peer beyond the word of scripture and to peer into the eternal being of the eternal God. Instead of pondering some obscure 'interpretation' why not just receive (the way a child receives) what is on the page - ... for now I know that thou fearest God [KJV]. Robert Young was scrupulous about Hebrew tenses and insists on a literal (but not idiomatic) presentation of the tense. But the meaning is quite clear to the unclouded judgment.
    – Nigel J
    Jun 18, 2020 at 0:13
  • @Nigel seems you overreacting and jumps to a conclusion not knowing what the question is for. There are various interpretations from many big names as my citations. Yet there could still be a better interpretation that reveals what "All-knowing God's purpose of testing Abraham.
    – Sam
    Jun 18, 2020 at 14:28
  • @Nigel I added more to my question, perhaps this will make the question clearer.
    – Sam
    Jun 18, 2020 at 14:32
  • 1
    @Anne - I want all concerned parties to know, I wholeheartedly adhere to the doctrine of the eternal, infinite omniscience of God. My aim for the posting is to bring us to better understand, even closer to the intended purpose of God for our benefits, if possible. Those comments cited were for a stepping tone with no hostile intentions. I welcome suggestions for making it a better/clear posting.
    – Sam
    Feb 19, 2022 at 17:48

1 Answer 1


I don't think the interpretation is to show that, "God's foreknowledge is justified." The following is from John Gill who is quoting someone else.

Psalm 1:6; Saadiah Gaon (i) interprets it, "I have made known", that is, to others; God by trying Abraham made it manifest to others, to all the world, to all that should hear of or read this account of things, that he was a man that feared God, loved him, believed in him, and obeyed him, of which this instance is a full and convincing proof:"

Or to put it another way, "The sacrifice was already accomplished in Abraham's heart." As I'm typing this I thought of what Jesus said at John 21:15-17. He ask Peter if he loved Him three times. Do you think that Jesus knew this already?

  • This text is only one of other several verses in the Scripture that Hermeneutic ( nor Theology, nor Logic) cannot answer, but only good Biblical Theology can. It is my purpose of the posting the question to seek the best answer from the perspective of God's Sovereign Foreknowledge. Ps 1:6 comment is in my question 2nd paragraph. On Jn 21:15-17, I have posted an answer: hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/48014/…
    – Sam
    Jun 17, 2020 at 18:57
  • Explain why closed.
    – Sam
    Jul 3, 2020 at 16:59

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