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Jesus is the fleshly expression of the logos... The word became flesh. It seems there are other aspects of the logos that are not Jesus. God is always doing things, saying things apart from through Jesus.

Rev 19:13 He is clothed with a robe dipped in blood, and His name is called The Word of God.

Jesus is called the Word, but that doesn't require him to be the 'whole' word.

Rev 1:1 God gave His word to Jesus (the Word) to give to John.

John 17:7 Now they have come to know that everything You have given Me is from You; for the words which You gave Me I have given to them.

These passages seem to express there is still the 'word of God' apart from 'The Word' Jesus.

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    This seems trivial to answer by quoting John 1:14 "The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us." Is there something you are assuming that you haven't put in the question? – DJClayworth Jun 3 '20 at 12:50
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    There are other aspects of the Son of God that are not logos. But there are not other aspects of logos outside of Him who is Logos. The statement 'God was the Logos' John 1:1, states an equivalence regarding Logos, but does not state an equivalence regarding God, because God is a matter of (the nature of) person and Logos is an attribute of Person. – – Nigel J Jun 3 '20 at 13:05
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    @user47952 You said "But there are other aspects of the logos that are not Jesus" and proceeded to show Rev 1:1 as evidence. But I think you haven't made yourself clear how Rev 1:1 is evidence for that claim. I can see how in Rev 1:2 there can be potential question about what "word of God" means, but you need to be more explicit. – GratefulDisciple Jun 3 '20 at 15:01
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    @user47952 You may find this 100-page 2008 seminary thesis useful The meaning of the Logos in John 1:1-18. In addition to the obligatory exegesis, the paper has the Greek background of logos, both classical & hellenistic (stoic, neoplatonic), Hebrew background of the equivalent dābār, as well as a great summary of early "confusion" about Jesus's nature and association with the preexistent logos. Good background paper about logos*/*dābār even if you may not agree with the conclusion. – GratefulDisciple Jun 3 '20 at 20:54
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    Asking for an answer that is "Bible Based Only" still requires interpretation and we don't allow valid interpretations to be pitted against each other on this site. – Peter Turner Jun 4 '20 at 3:33
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Absolutely not. The "Logos/Word" eternally existed according to John 1:1-3. Moreover, both John 1:1 and Genesis 1:1 start out with the same three words, "in the beginning." The main thought of Genesis 1:1 is on "WHAT HAPPENED" in the beginning, and at John 1:1 the main thought or emphasis is on WHO EXISTED "in the beginning."

Why do you think John 1:1 says that the "Logos/Word" was not only with God, but was God." Since God eternally exist and does not have a beginning then by definition Jesus Christ eternally existed. John 1:2, "He/Logos/Word/That one" was in the beginning with who #48152? What's the last word in verse 2? "God!"

If your with somebody you can't be that somebody. So John 1:1 is identifying two distinct persons, God the Father and God the Son who are the one God. How are they the one God?

There are one in nature or essence and the Bible clearly identifies each person of the Trinity as distinct persons. You, I and every other human being are one in nature based on our nature of human. You are not your father and your father is not you. You are a distinct person from your father, mother, your children (if you have any) and the rest of humanity.

And yes, Jesus Christ is the physical manifestation of His Father. Please read John 14:9-11. The Father has no separate manifestation from the Son. The Son is the only manifestation and revelation of the Father. What is know of the Father is revealed through the Son. To see the Son is to see the essence of the Father. John 1:1, 18; John 10:30. This is where Jesus literally said, "I and the Father We are one. On what?

It goes without saying they are one in purpose, this is a given. But this verse is not about them being one in purpose, but one in nature or essence. Why else did the Jews answer Him and say at John 10:33, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out God."

Does Jesus deny the blasphemy, no. Why do you think He brought up Psalm 82:6? Or at John 5:18, "For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because (or why), He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, MAKING HIMSELF EQUAL WITH GOD."

And yes, Jesus Christ is the total expression of the Logos. He has no parts, aspects and He certainly does "subsume" by way of absorbing something in something else. And of course Jesus has names and titles. Luke 2:11, "for today in the city of David there has been born for you a Savior, who is Christ the Lord."

Somebody else named Thomas made a similar statement at John 20:28 when he declared to Jesus Christ Himself, "The Lord of me and the God of me."

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  • @user48152 Now think for a second. Whether or not the Jews had in for Jesus (which they did) or whether or not the Jews correctly or incorrectly understood Jesus is not the issue. What was it that Jesus said that caused the Jews to accuse Him of blasphemy resulting in His death on that cross? Read the context of John 5:18, calling God His own Father. At John 8:57-58. John 10:30-38. John 19:7. The trial record at Matthew 26:57-66. The high priest ask Jesus to swear as to His identity, vs63. Are you the Christ, the Son of God? Claiming to be the Messiah or the Son of God is not blasphemy. – Mr. Bond Jun 4 '20 at 2:34
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    Precisely, none of which make a claim to BE God, just the holy son of. They clearly extrapolated and freaked out with what they thought they understood. Just like they thought he broke the sabbath. Luke 1:35: “...the child to be born will be called holy — the Son of God. Lot's of 'things' are called holy from the temple etc, but Jesus was born w/o sin. – user47952 Jun 4 '20 at 3:09

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