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Lots of interesting thought here, but no one seems to want to go back and ask about the 'logos'. John 1...

A word used over 300 times in NT, but never referred to as a person. Words like statement, account, message, story, news, saying etc have been used to better fit the context.

From the context of John's writings, why does 'word' have to be a person? Why does it have to have to be capitalised? - it is not capitalised in any other place apart from John 1. (John 6:30, 10:35, 18:32 and 327 others)

Any reference for Jesus being God is based on inference only. He never said he was... pointing out that he had a God many times. If Jesus is God, then we have two Gods. John 20:17 'I go to my Father and your Father, my God and your God'

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  • Welcome to christianity.SX. You may use the search bar to find other questions and answers on this topic. One particularly similar one might be christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/1615/…. An while you're at it, may I suggest to take our tour christianity.stackexchange.com/tourand learn more about this platform. It can take a while to understand how this site works, so please persevere! Feb 10 '20 at 8:34
  • You should narrow this question down a bit. If you're a member of a denomination and care about it, I'd start there. Otherwise, this would be a good question to ask of the Church Fathers. Alternatively, if you wanted to ask for a "Bliblical Basis" for the doctrine of the Incarnation, that might work too. Also, there's almost a book worth of G.K. Chesterton to expound on this subject, so you could go there too.
    – Peter Turner
    Feb 10 '20 at 13:38
  • From the context of John's writings, why does 'word' have to be a person ? - See Revelation 19:11-16.
    – Lucian
    Feb 21 '20 at 3:56
  • Contrast your "He never said he was [God]" with John 20:28-29. "Thomas answered and said to him: My Lord and my God. Jesus saith to him: Because thou hast seen me, Thomas, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen and have believed." Jun 5 '20 at 17:16
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A word used over 300 times in NT, but never referred to as a person. [...]

The people John wrote too would never expect him to write of a person who is God. [...]

Why do we make such a big deal out of John's use of 'logos'?

As I understand your question you are asking why the logos here (the Word) in Christianity is believed to be God.

Here is what we know about the Word taken from the chapter you referenced, John 1.

  1. The Word was God (verse 1)
  2. The Word became flesh (verse 14)
  3. The Word dwelt among us (verse 14)
  4. The Word has the glory as of the only begotten from the Father (verse 14)

So the Word is God who became flesh and dwelt among us with the glory of the only begotten of the Father. Clearly, these are personal references (begotten / being God), and in Christianity there is only one person who could become flesh and be God at the same time, with the glory of the only begotten of the Father: Jesus Christ.

The passage is a big deal, because it shows that Jesus Christ has all of the above attributes, especially being God and being flesh, united in Himself.

For reference, here are the two quoted verses in full (NASB).

John 1:1: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

John 1:14: And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.

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It's a "BIG" deal because the center piece of the whole Bible has to do with the identity of the "Logos/Word" and His purpose for being sent to earth. John 1:1-14.

You will also notice I said, "His" purpose. At John 1:1 it does not say "God's word or words, it says "The Word existed..." And "The Word existed how? The Word existed with God. In John 1.1b The Word and The God are distinct, there is a subject/object distinction between the two. And finally, "The Word was God." So whatever God is, The Word is, and vice versa. So if "The Word" is impersonal, God is impersonal. If "The Word " is just a thought or a plan, then "The God" is just a thought or a plan.

So, the Word has self existence and the "Word" is shown to exist in relation to "The God" contrary to those trying to make this "God's word." In short, the nature of The Word is God. And by the way, Jesus existed "BEFORE" the creation at Genesis 1:1. The following site explains in detail John 1:1 and how Jesus existed before His incarnation as a man. https://biblehub.com/commentaries/cambridge/john/1.htm

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    'Jesus' is the name given to a baby born in Bethlehem. The Son of God is eternally so. The Word was in the beginning. I would up-vote this answer but for the last sentence. It is not accurate and does not properly distinguish matters of Deity and humanity.
    – Nigel J
    Feb 10 '20 at 11:19

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