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I came across this website (Egyptian Moon G-d 'Yah': Investigating The Roots Of Lunar Cult!!!) and it seems to provide some evidence that Yahweh is a God who was actually the ancient moongod Yah. Can this website be taken seriously? Does it have any merit?

I came across a refutation to this blog in the comment's section of the same blog. I would like to know if the below answer refutes robertmascharan.

The Egyptian moon noun is Iah, The quote you have from the Papyrus is from the Papyrus of Ani which dates to the New Kingdom in 1250 BCE. Now, the term "Yah" or "Iah" is the noun moon. In fact, the depictions of the moon-god in Ancient Egyptian text is Osiris, Thoth and Khonsu, any depictions or mentions of Iah or Aah as a moon-god did not arrive until the middle/new kingdom; during the reign of Semitic peoples, who to the Egyptians known as the Hyksos.

These middle eastern Asiatics brought popularity and use of Iah as a name. It was not the name of a Moon-God prior to that

Source:

"" In the Pyramid texts of Pepi I he is referred to as the late pharaoh's brother.[2] He was especially popular at the beginning of the New Kingdom, possibly as the result of Middle Eastern influences,[3] when names like Ahmose, meaning 'Iah is born', and Ahhotep, 'Iah is content', were frequent.[4] In the Book of the Dead Osiris is described as shining forth in the splendor of A'ah.[1]

Iah and his cult are but rarely referred to after the early New Kingdom.[3] According to the Late Period Teachings of Amenemope Iah is one of the avenging deities who will establish crimes against evil-doers.[5] ""

Now, during this time during the middle Kingdom, the Egyptians favored the name iah or Aah as a name rather than a noun and used it to evoke the "mood-god". There are no temples or inscriptions in the pyramid text to this. You can look specifically in Pyramid Text Utterance 1001 A and see that Moon is spelled from the EA wallis Budge inscription as a noun with no determinative to God or goddess.

Plus, you forget to mention Hebrew, and Egyptian being PAA or Proto-Afro Asiatic language families, they have the same roots in their pronunciations and Etymology. The name of God in the bible is used as such Ahayah-Ashar-Ahayah - Alpeh - Yod - Hey - Vav - Hey....

There is a determanative in Ahayah to promote the pronunciation and use of the name... Now if you want to say Ah-Lah, which has both links to the Afro-Asiatic roots for moon and ALSO has within their pantheon as Allah the moon god, then you have an argument.

But you hid the following...

1.) Yah was used by semetics as a name, and was made popular by them not the Egyptians.

2.) Yah is NOT mentioned as a god prior to the New Kingdom, but was rather a used as a noun generic as moon.

3.) The Pictographic meaning of M17 is strictly a "I" or "A" Yod in Egpytian is the double-reed leaf with is "Y" this is not in the spelling of Yah but rather Iah or Aah. Ee-ah or Ae-ah

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    The answer is 'No'. In the beginning God (Elohim) made the heavens and the earth. [Genesis 1:1]. the LORD God (Jehovah Elohim) made the earth and the heavens. [Genesis 2:4] [KJV]. God made the moon, ergo he is before it was made and before it was even seen by humanity and before mankind could, insanely, idolise the thing. – Nigel J Dec 19 '19 at 11:48
  • @NigelJ Looks like an answer there ... – KorvinStarmast Dec 19 '19 at 13:00
  • I am not sure why my question has been closed. I was looking for an academic refutation to the blog. Also, the moon and a moongod aren't the same thing. So your reply doesn't really answer my question. I would request you to reopen this question. I know very well that the robertmascharan blog is bogus and is playing with semantics. – user3125707 Dec 20 '19 at 6:30
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The answer is 'No'.

In the beginning God (Elohim) made the heavens and the earth. [Genesis 1:1]

And :

... the LORD God (Jehovah Elohim) made the earth and the heavens. [Genesis 2:4] [KJV]

God made the moon, ergo he is before it was made and before it was even seen by humanity and before mankind could, insanely, idolise the thing.

He revealed himself to Moses and told Moses :

I am that I am [Exodus 3:14, KJV]

His name, Jehovah, reflects his own, independent and eternal existence.


By the way, the blogger makes a great deal out of what he calls a 'miscalculation'in Matthew's genealogy of Jesus. It is his own miscalculation (and he could have corrected his fault by diligently taking note of the matter as recorded on Stack Exchange : Biblical Hermeneutics, available globally to all English speakers, and, by the facilities available on Google, to all languages worlwide) the fact being that Jechoniah is mentioned twice but is two different people, father and son, not one person.

And Josias begat Jechonias and his brethren, about the time they were carried away to Babylon: [Matthew 1:11, KJV]

And after they were brought to Babylon, Jechonias begat Salathiel; and Salathiel begat Zorobabel; [Matthew 1:12, KJV]

Seriously ? Merit ?

I will leave it to you, to judge for yourself.

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  • Can you please reopen this question? I have added some additional points to it and would like it if the experts could confirm it. – user3125707 Dec 20 '19 at 6:37
  • You can edit the question when it is closed. – DJClayworth Dec 21 '19 at 22:58

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