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In Genesis 7:2 we read

Of every clean beast thou shall take...

Up until this point God never revealed the basis for His distinction between clean and unclean animals.

Does it mean the understanding of clean and unclean animals is common / written in our hearts?

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    It would be important to establish what, in this place, the Hebrew underlying the words 'clean' and 'unclean' actually means, and whether they are the same Hebrew words used in Leviticus. So, it might be suitable to ask the question on Stack Exchange Bible Hermeneutics. There may already be some information available there on the subject. – Nigel J Dec 17 '19 at 10:53
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    Moses did not invent Judaism from scratch. The prophet simply advocated the return to ancestral practices, after centuries of Egyptian influence. – Lucian Dec 17 '19 at 15:31
  • @NigelJ found this one but not sure how the answer suits this particular question - hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/9155/27054 – Tiago Martins Peres Dec 17 '19 at 15:49
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    There is a slight difference in wording. In Genesis tahor is 'clean' and there are beasts that are not tahor. In Leviticus tahor is clean and tame is unclean. The difference in contrasting wording may well be relevant but, unfortunately this was not taken up in the BH answers. – Nigel J Dec 18 '19 at 16:48
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    @TiagosupportsGoFundMonica I think just ask the question, explain the problem. – Nigel J Dec 18 '19 at 18:25
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God never revealed the basis for His distinction between clean and unclean animals

This is an assumption, and it may well be false. All we know is that such a revelation is not recorded in the Bible. In fact, the passage in question can be seen as evidence that God did revealed dietary laws to individuals such as Noah before revealing it to Moses and the Israelites. Because, as you observed, how else would he be able to understand this instruction?

That the distinction between clean and unclean was written in Noah's heart (and by inference, in our hearts) is only one speculative explanation. That God did explicitly reveal it, another. We don't know with absolute certainty, since the Bible is silent on this matter.

That Noah received direct revelation in this matter is plausible in light of the fact he is recorded to have received a substantial amount of direct revelation - all of which, presumably, may not be recorded in its entirety.

Does it mean the understanding of clean and unclean animals is common / written in our hearts?

As we have no certainty about the previous point, you are left to speculation on this point as well. The Bible makes no explicit statement about this question.

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    One thing is certain. If Moses wrote the book of Genesis (and I believe he did), he would certainly know the difference between clean and unclean, as would the Israelites who read Moses' book. (I am not suggesting here that Moses is putting words in the LORD's mouth--words which the LORD did not impart to Noah. As you observed, perhaps the LORD did explain to Noah about the differences between clean and unclean, even though we have no record of it in the text of Scripture.) Don – rhetorician Dec 17 '19 at 12:56
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    @rhetorician I don't see how this is relevant, since the instruction to take of clean/unclean animals is to Noah, long before Moses. Especially since you are not questioning the authenticity of the text (which neither am I) – ig-dev Dec 17 '19 at 12:59
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    Yes, of course. Noah preceded Moses by hundreds of years, but Moses was writing a book containing mini-biographies of a number of patriarchs, including Noah. Moses, as God's prophet, was writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit for the benefit of his fellow Hebrews. If Moses said the LORD said "Take 7 pairs of clean animals, male and female," then that is what God said. Period. Since Noah obeyed God, he must have known the difference between clean and unclean (though perhaps not as fully as Moses, since Moses had greater revelation from YHWH). So why didn't Moses include in Genesis – rhetorician Dec 18 '19 at 0:27
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    the account of how God and Noah had a little sit-down so that God could explain to Noah what animals are clean and what animals are unclean? Because Moses, like any biographer, was SELECTIVE about what included in his mini-biographies. And to select is also to DEFLECT. Do you think Moses' audience had a thought similar to yours, thinking to themselves,"Hey, how did Noah know about the difference between clean and unclean animals?"? I don't think so. They knew, however, that Noah must have known, and they let it go at that. Hey, if I'm simply muddying the waters further, forgive me. – rhetorician Dec 18 '19 at 0:35
  • "And to select is also to DEFLECT", so true @rhetorician – Tiago Martins Peres Dec 18 '19 at 23:09

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