I have judged this to be a not-so-impossible theory after some time doing a little investigation into the original intention of, and original Hebrew (or at least non-Greek words) underlying, the angel's greeting to Mary; more specifically, the best interpretation of the word κεχαριτωμενη (Luke 1:28).
The theory began mostly because Jerome's translation (plena gratia) has intrigued me to no end, as a "fullness" of "grace" could only be arrived at by either taking the past perfect tense of the word (lit. "having been graced/favored"), and and taking it for some completedness—fullness—of the action of being "graced" by God. It may be theologically true, and thus justified indeed in this specific sense (and theologically true but linguistically liberal translations are not foreign to the Septuagint, or Targumim), however, in context, "you have found favor with God" which the angel says just after (1:30) appears to be the governing explanation for the greeting, as well as to preclude the "grace" sense of χαρις (i.e. leaving us only with the sense "favor")—although, perhaps confusingly, grace is nothing else than the divine favor).
So, I surmised that it might have been a name (inasmuch as it stands for her name, "Hail, Kecharitomene: the Lord be with thee"), or Hebrew which can be phrased in some name-like way. Immediately, I thought of the Hebrew for grace (Hhen), and thus the name Hannah: I can think of no better translation of Hannah than Κεχαριτωμενη! And thus I'm thinking Gabriel could actually have said the name Hannah, identifying Mary with her (possibly explaining Mary's bewilderment at "what manner of greeting this is" Gabriel used: Luke 1:29), or a similar Semitic word with the same force and result: I'm struggling to think of what else Gabriel could have said that Luke would have translated by so specific a word.
In any case, it led me to the first instance we hear of Hannah in the Bible, when she prays that God looks upon her state of disgrace, which refers to her having no children, and grants her offspring. The disgrace of course is her inability to have children, and the being looked upon or favored is being gifted miraculous conception.
Then I realized that only Mary and Hannah say this:
1 Lᴜᴋᴇ 1:48 My soul magnifies the Lord, and my spirit rejoices in God my Saviour: for he has looked upon the humiliation of his maidservant.
1 Sᴀᴍᴜᴇʟ 1:11
And making a vow, [Hannah] said, "Lord of hosts, if you look upon the humiliation of your maidservant, and remember me, and forget not, but give your maidservant male seed, I shall dedicate him to the Lord for all the days of his life, and a razor shall not come near his head.
The "disgrace" or "humiliation," (עני) per this Hebrew idiomatic usage, refers almost technically to inability to have children and associated negative or low reputation [cf. Luke 1:25] (another proof that Mary intended to remain a virgin, because women only refer to their inability to have children as a disgrace by way of lamentation—not their not yet having had children! just a side note): in Hannah's case, because of physically incapability: in Mary's case, because she has vowed to remain a virgin.
Does this correlation imply Mary, who intended to remain a virgin, nonetheless prayed to God that she could give birth to the Messiah (perhaps thinking of Scriptures like Isaiah 7:14, for example), and did any Church Fathers think this?
Thanks in advance.