At Matthew 26: 27-30 we see:

Then he took a cup, and after giving thanks he gave it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you; for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. I tell you, I will never again drink of this fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.” When they had sung the hymn, they went out to the Mount of Olives.

That is perhaps, the only narrative in the Gospels where we see Jesus singing. There is a school of thought which says that Jesus taught many things, including the Lord's Prayer, in verses. The Catholic Church is yet to come up with a confirmatory statement on the said prospects. Be that as it may, I am eager to know if Jesus was good at singing, just as his forefather David was. Does any apocryphal teaching endorsed by the Catholic Church say that Jesus was good at singing ?

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    I dare say that what we consider "good singing" has changed quite a bit over the last 2000 years. What we do know, from a number of stories of Jesus preaching out of doors, is that he must have had excellent voice projection. Commented Jun 3, 2019 at 16:05
  • @MichaelKay Not everyone was able to hear Jesus speaking ;-) Commented Jun 4, 2019 at 18:50
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    Apocryphal writings are just that and as such are not endorsed by the Church.
    – Ken Graham
    Commented Jun 5, 2019 at 11:20

3 Answers 3


There is no information on the quality of Jesus' singing

The Catena Aurea includes commentaries on this verse from Origen, Bede, Rabanus, Chrysostom, Hilary, and Jerome and not one of them talk about the quality of Jesus' singing. No other commentaries I found talked about Jesus quality of singing either, nor made reference to any extrabiblical traditions.

On the contrary, Isaiah 53:2 (NIV), which Christians say describes Jesus, says as follows:

He grew up before him like a tender shoot, and like a root out of dry ground. He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him, nothing in his appearance that we should desire him.

While this passage is referring to his physical appearance being unremarkable, it would follow that "he had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him" also with regards to his singing ability.

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    I'm not sure but I figured that verse in Isaiah was only in reference to Jesus' appearance on the Cross. But maybe it's just because that part of the Bible is only read in church right before Easter.
    – Peter Turner
    Commented Jun 5, 2019 at 12:50

While acknowledging the most salient point in Thunderforge's answer that there is no (specific) information on the quality of Jesus' singing, an inference can be made based on scripture that is exactly opposite to that which he has drawn from Isaiah 53:2.

Such an inference (of, in my opinion, greater or at least equal strength) can be drawn from Mark 7:37 where it is said of Jesus that "He has done everything well". The context is that this is said of him by those in the region of the Decapolis upon observing his healing of a deaf mute man. If we limit ourselves to applying what was said only to Jesus' immediately observable actions at that time, then this is of course no more determinitive than the inference drawn from Isaiah, however the plain language of the text tends to a more comprehensive interpretration that would encompass any of Jesus' actions including singing.

The problem with establishing inferences from either of these passages is that they are relying on what was apparant to sinful men and although appearing within inspired scripture, they are therefore on comparitively weak foundations.

An arguably determinitive inference can be made however if we consider Jesus' words in John 8:29 where he says of the Father:

And the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him. - NRSCVE [emphasis added]

From this, we should deduce that Jesus' singing was (amongst everything else he has done) pleasing to the Father and therefore objectively "good" regardless of how sinful men would have assessed its quality.

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    That's a nice piece of reasoning there. :) +1 Commented Jun 5, 2019 at 21:49

He certainly knew how.

Mt. 26:30 (Mk. 14:26):

And a hymn being said, they went out unto mount Olivet.

St. Thomas Aquinas writes (intro. to his exposition on David's psalms):

A hymn is the praise of God with song; a song is the exultation of the mind dwelling on eternal things, bursting forth in the voice.

Christ praised His Father perfectly; therefore, His praise "bursting forth in the voice" must also have been perfect.

  • Thanks, Rev. Geremia. But, I wonder why you recommended the question for being put on hold , after answering it ! Commented Jun 7, 2019 at 3:35
  • @KadalikattJosephSibichan I'm not a "Rev."… My answer is my own argument, so "opinion-based" ☺
    – Geremia
    Commented Jun 7, 2019 at 3:38

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