There are many passages in bible about this question. But the thing that confuses me is this:
If resurrection is "at the last day" or "at the end of the world" (according to John 6, John 11:24, 1 Corinthians 15:52, Matthew 13:36-43 and other verses), then how should the the parable of beggar Lazarus and the rich man be interpreted?

For if heaven or hell start at the last day, then how does Abraham say to rich man that his brothers have scriptures with themselves to hear them lest they also come to hell? If they aren't yet in heaven nor in hell and the rich man, does that mean that afterlife starts for dead immediately. And if at the last day, why would Abraham lie to him in saying that they "still have a chance" if resurrection is passed?

Someone may say that this parable should not be interpreted literally but this parable isn't the only place where immediate afterlife is mentioned (see Luke 23:43).

Luk 23:42 — Luk 23:43 And he said unto Jesus, Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom. And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee Today, shalt thou be with me in paradise.

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    I have attempted to edit your question into coherent prose. Please review the edit and make sure it's what you mean. Wall of text is not an acceptable format for this Q&A site. – KorvinStarmast Apr 17 '19 at 21:22
  • I didn't make a reference to Luke 23:4 in my answer because it has nothing to do with the afterlife. Was this a typo? – jlaverde Apr 18 '19 at 15:27
  • Consider the idea that there is spiritual existence of heaven and hell at current, and promise of a future bodily resurrection for the "Just and the Unjust" – L1R Sep 5 '19 at 16:51