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Thomas Aquinas discusses Mary as the sinless Mother of God in the Summa Theologica (Third Part, Question 27, Article 4), writing that Mary

would not have been worthy to be the Mother of God, if she had ever sinned. First, because the honor of the parents reflects on the child, according to Prov. 17:6: "The glory of children are their fathers": and consequently, on the other hand, the Mother's shame would have reflected on her Son. Secondly, because of the singular affinity between her and Christ, who took flesh from her: and it is written ( 2 Cor. 6:15): "What concord hath Christ with Belial?" Thirdly, because of the singular manner in which the Son of God, who is the "Divine Wisdom" (1 Cor. 1:24) dwelt in her, not only in her soul but in her womb. And it is written (Wis. 1:4): "Wisdom will not enter into a malicious soul, nor dwell in a body subject to sins." We must therefore confess simply that the Blessed Virgin committed no actual sin, neither mortal nor venial.

Does Catholicism apply all these reasons to the mother of the "Mother of God"? If not, why not? And if yes, what about the Grandmother of the "Mother of God", and so on backwards to Eve?

marked as duplicate by Geremia catholicism Mar 5 at 18:05

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

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    @Geremia I agree this is a duplicate, but not of the listed question. I think it's more a duplicate of this: christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/44456/… – Matt Gutting Mar 5 at 18:49
  • What I am asking is how is it OK for the mother of Jesus to be without original sin, but the mother of Mary did not have to be without original sin? How does Thomas Aquinas's reasoning apply to the mother of Mary - is it Catholic teaching that a sinner was worthy to be the mother of Mary? – Andrew Shanks Mar 5 at 19:22
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    I believe the last paragraph of the accepted answer to the question I linked answers your question. Yes? – Matt Gutting Mar 5 at 20:18
  • OK thanks Matt, I've seen the answer now. – Andrew Shanks Mar 5 at 20:30
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    The relevant passage from "Ineffabilis Deus", quoted in both answers to the linked question, uses the phrase "singular privilege", which might well mean that no one else was granted this privilege --- in particular not St. Anne. – Andreas Blass Mar 5 at 21:46