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How do those Christians who believe that believers' partaking of the divine nature that Apostle Peter was talking about in 2 Pet. 1:4 is possible only through Eucharist prove that? What are their main arguments supporting that notion?

2 Pet 1:4: "Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust." (KJV)

I am not sure if the concept of Eucharist being the exclusive way of partaking of the divine nature is a must belief in any one branch of Christianity. It is most likely that in each branch there could be found both proponents and opponents of that belief. However, in my question I am primarily interested in the arguments of RCC, EOC and main-stream Protestants.

  • I never considered receiving the Eucharist as partaking of the divine nature, but of partaking of the divine person. Do you have a reference that receiving the Eucharist has something to do with partaking of the divine nature? The idea, for example, goes against my understanding that when we are Baptized into Christ we are partaking of the divine nature when we become part of the Body. The Eucharist may be part of the process of sanctification which forgives venial sins when received worthily yet before doing so, one must be "In Christ". Good question, just looking for clarification. – Marc Feb 7 at 13:09
  • @Marc - "Do you have a reference that receiving the Eucharist has something to do with partaking of the divine nature?" - I heard that from a few orthodox priests. – brilliant Feb 8 at 0:42
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In the Catechism of the Catholic Church:

The Word became flesh to make us "partakers of the divine nature":78 "For this is why the Word became man, and the Son of God became the Son of man: so that man, by entering into communion with the Word and thus receiving divine sonship, might become a son of God."79 "For the Son of God became man so that we might become God."80 "The only-begotten Son of God, wanting to make us sharers in his divinity, assumed our nature, so that he, made man, might make men gods."81 CCC 460

"by entering into communion with the Word": since the Word is capitalized, it means the Eucharist.

I think this quote above explains it nicely. I encourage you to read the whole section.

  • "since the Word is capitalized, it means the Eucharist" - I don't quite understand the logic of this jump. I would say "since the Word is capitalized, it means Christ". You might need to add some additional links in this chain to prove that exactly Eucharist is implied by the capitalized Word. – brilliant Feb 7 at 14:41
  • It is Jesus but how do you enter into communion with the bread of life who is Jesus? Your question is basically asking to prove Christ's presence in the Eucharist. – Grasper Feb 7 at 15:32
  • "...how do you enter into communion with the bread of life who is Jesus? Your question is basically asking to prove Christ's presence in the Eucharist" - It would be asking that if Eucharist were for sure the only way of how a believer enters into communion with Jesus the Bread of Life. However, besides the Eucharist we still have a prayer. One still needs to prove here that a simple act of prayer IS NOT an act of entering into communion with Jesus. This, in fact, is the very essence of my question. – brilliant Feb 7 at 16:45
  • To be truly in communion you must believe what the Church teaches. One of the teaching is the Eucharist. You can learn more about what it means to be in communion with the Catholic Church. The Church believes John 6:53 was literal. chnetwork.org/2015/12/10/… – Grasper Feb 7 at 16:51
  • Do you consider Eucharist and communion to be synonymous? Do you consider the partaking of divined nature in 2 Pet 1:4 synonymous with Eucharist? How do you know that partaking of the divine nature is NOT possible through merely a prayer? – brilliant Feb 7 at 16:59

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