At John 2: 3-7 we read about the first miracle of Jesus at the wedding of Cana:

"3.When the wine gave out, the mother of Jesus said to him, “They have no wine.” 4. And Jesus said to her, “Woman, what concern is that to you and to me? My hour has not yet come.” 5. His mother said to the servants, “Do whatever he tells you.” 6 Now standing there were six stone water jars for the Jewish rites of purification, each holding twenty or thirty gallons. 7 Jesus said to them, “Fill the jars with water.” And they filled them up to the brim."

One wonders whether a line of conversation between Jesus and Mary is missing between Verses 4 and 5. For instance, Jesus might have said : ".. However Mother, since you are really concerned, let me see if I can do something about it", or Mary might have said "..Don't tell me that son, you can really do something to save the family from disgrace." . Given the present reaction of Jesus in the text, one wonders as to why the servants immedialtely complied with His instuctions , since He would have seemed apathetic to the situation.

My quesion therefore, is: has the Catholic Church discussed the apparent gap between Verses 4 and 5 of John: 2 ?

  • Why did you tag this with Gospel of John all as separate tags? Please edit to fix. – curiousdannii Jan 20 '19 at 13:25
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    The Bible contains an extremely large number of places where another verse could have been inserted. What is so significant about this one? – Ray Butterworth Jan 20 '19 at 14:46
  • Have you examined all the relevant evidence before making this supposition ? - The Uncials, the cursives, the Versions, the Patristic Citations and the Lectionaries ? – Nigel J Jan 20 '19 at 15:37
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    This might be better asked as "How does the Catholic Church address apparent gaps in the gospels?" with John as an example. There is a whole discussion going on about how Jesus' teachings and parables likely played out in far more words than are shown in the Bible; this seems to fit into that discussion. – Zenon Jan 20 '19 at 20:33
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    The words of my mother after I said something like vs 4 to her would have to be edited out of a script so that it could maintain its pg-13 rating – Kris Jan 21 '19 at 15:04

NA27, NA28, UBS4 & UBS5 show no significant variation in the Greek text at John 2:4, 5. The Text of Jerome's Latin Vulgate (400 AD) and the Clementine Vulgate (1592) also show no variation here. The Douay-Challoner-Rheims Bible also has no variation in the usual text, nor does it suggest anything in the accompanying commentary in the footnotes.

The "official" Catholic Bible (in English), the New American Bible, published by Catholic World Press and carrying an official recommendation and signature of Pope Paul VI (1970) contains the usual running commentary as footnotes throughout this document.

The only comment it contains about John 2:4, 5 concerns V4 which says:

This verse may seek to show that Jesus did not work miracles to help his family and friends as in the apocryphal gospels. Woman: a normal polite form of address but unattested in reference to one's mother. Cf also 19.26. How does your concern affect me? literally, "What is this to me and you?" - a Hebrew expression of either hostility (Jgs 11:12; 2 Chr 35:21; 1 Kgs 17:18) or denial of common interest (Hos 14:9; 2 Kgs 3:13). Cf Mk 1:24:5, 7, used by demons to address Jesus. My hour has not yet come: the translation as a question ("Has not my hour now come?"), while preferable grammatically and supported by Greek Fathers seems unlikely from a comparison with 7, 6.30. The "hour" is that of Jesus' passion, death, resurrection and ascension (13.1).

Thus, the official Catholic Bible does not appear to suggest that anything in the usual text of John's Gospel is missing.

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  • Which edition of the Vulgate do you mean when you say, 'Jerome's Latin Vulgate?' – Sola Gratia Jan 21 '19 at 21:06
  • "Biblia Sacra; Iuxta Vulgatam Versionem", published by Deutche Bibelgesellschaft, 1994, edited by Robertus Weber & Roger Gryson. This is a critical edition (including footnotes of variants) and purports to be the text of St Jerome's Latin Vulgate from about 400 AD. It shows not significant variant readings at John 2:4, 5, and certainly no missing verse(s). – user43409 Jan 21 '19 at 21:44
  • I see. Thanks. I only ask because the Vulgata Clementina has the Comma but you noted in another answer that Jerome's didn't. – Sola Gratia Jan 21 '19 at 21:56
  • If you mean the Johannine comma, then yes - it is absent from Jerome's Latin Vulgate. – user43409 Jan 22 '19 at 1:30
  • The New American Bible is only the "official" Catholic Bible in the United States, if that. It doesn't feature at all in England & Wales. – Andrew Leach Jan 22 '19 at 7:33

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