I've been looking at some of the thoughts on eisegesis and it seems that the general tone is always negative when the term comes up. However, when we read the bible in an Exegetical way in order to expose the text we must understand those words we read and phrases used through a biblical lens; thus in some capacity this is an eisegetical application that comes from foundational exegesis able to be factualized by proof of witness from the Scripture alone. Therefore, is it not correct to say that we use both Exegesis and Eisegesis in our approach to understanding Scripture and that this is a positive use of the term? Thanks

  • Welcome to Christianity.SE! When you have a moment, please take our tour and visit our help center to learn more about us. This site focuses on questions about the many Christian faiths, traditions, and denomintaions. Thus, your question doesn't appear to be about Christianity, per-se. I'll leave it up to the more experienced members of the site to judge, but you might consider asking this question on Biblical Hermeneutics. – JBH Nov 23 '18 at 19:31
  • Thanks! I didn't know about that stack...Ill join it too! – Lowther Nov 23 '18 at 20:11
  • Good question. Welcome to the Stack Exchange (SE). I agree with JBH: your question is more suited for Biblical Hermeneutics SE, which I encourage you to join. Nevertheless, I'll post an answer here to get the ball rolling. Don – rhetorician Nov 23 '18 at 20:46
  • Biblical hermeneutics has declared this same question not appropriate for there forum either: due to it lacking a specific scripture to apply hermeneutics to. – Lowther Nov 27 '18 at 23:48
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    Regrettably this fascinating question, which I would love to dig into, is going to be opinion based and so off topic. – DJClayworth Dec 5 '18 at 18:27