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At Matthew 27:17 of Contemporary English Version we read:

"So when the crowd came together, Pilate asked them, “Which prisoner do you want me to set free? Do you want Jesus Barabbas or Jesus who is called the Messiah?”

But in RSVCE, we read the same verse as follows:

"So when they had gathered, Pilate said to them, “Whom do you want me to release for you, Barab′bas or Jesus who is called Christ?”

While it appears that the name Barabbas was an attribute meaning ' son of the father' or ' like father like son' in a more cynical way, it is difficult to believe that he also bore the name Jesus . I wish to know what the view of Catholic Church on the presentation of Barabbas with the first name Jesus, is.

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    This question has been asked and answered on the Hermeneutics site: hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/2698/… – Bit Chaser Aug 6 '18 at 21:57
  • christianity.stackexchange.com/a/11698/23657. This answer to a related question may interest you – Kris Aug 8 '18 at 2:03
  • I want to believe that the CEV is trying to pre-empt a situation in which people would call for the release of Jesus which 'incidentally ' was the name of both the would- be- convicted, and so he used the alibi of both pesons viz. Barabbas for the hardcore crimimal and Christ for Jesus our Lord. But then, was it ntot possible that Pilate was trying to coerce the Jews into demanding the Nazarene's release reminding that they themselves had called him 'The Anointed One'. – Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan Aug 8 '18 at 15:43

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