My question is very simple: did Jesus mention or command his followers to go and preach Christianity (worshiping Him) to Indians or the Non-Jews? If he did not mention it why are Christians preaching around the world? Does this mean that Jesus's message was only for a particular group of people and not for the whole of humanity? Please be specific.
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4See Matthew 24:14; 28:19, 20.– user32540Apr 28, 2018 at 17:27
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8I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is a low effort verse search question.– curiousdannii ♦Apr 28, 2018 at 22:36
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2 Answers
Yes. While Jesus did tell his followers to focus on the Jews and not the Gentiles during his lifetime, after the Resurrection that changed, quite explicitly:
And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
Matthew records a slightly different version of this commission:
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost
The wording differs between the two passages, but both quite clearly mention the universal nature of the charge to teach the Gospel.
answered Apr 28, 2018 at 17:34
There are five places in the Bible where Jesus gives what is known as the Great Commission: to go and preach to everybody in the world.
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
(46) And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: (47) And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
Then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you: as my Father hath sent me, even so send I you.
This can be paired with John 17:18
... and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.
Also, here is a short list of examples of the Gospel being preached to non-Jews.
We can see Jesus preaching to Samaritans in John 4:4-42
(40) So when the Samaritans were come unto [Jesus], they besought him that he would tarry with them: and he abode there two days. (41) And many more believed because of his own word;
We can see Philip witnessing to a Ethiopian eunuch in Acts 8:26-39
(35) Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto [the eunuch] Jesus.
And some further examples from Paul:
And when they were come, and had gathered the church together, they rehearsed all that God had done with them, and how he had opened the door of faith unto the Gentiles.
And [Jesus] said unto me, Depart: for I will send thee far hence unto the Gentiles.
Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it.
I say then, Have [the Jews] stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.
This is by no means a complete list of examples. Paul's entire ministry was to the Gentiles, as seen in Acts 22:21 (referenced above). However, I think this is sufficient for your question.
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The Samaratins were the original Jews maintaing the religion of the Israelites before the Babylon captivity. They are referred to as the guardians of the Torah. Referring to them as non Jews is incorrect. Judaism is the altered religion post Babylon.. Both people and religions are closely related.– user27478Apr 29, 2018 at 9:08
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@resident_heretic: The Samaritans were Israelites or Hebrews, but not Jews (= Judaeans = the southern Kingdom of Judah). Apr 29, 2018 at 10:28
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1From what I understand, the Samaritans were those who had married outside of the Hebrew people, and thus were "mixed blood." Thus, they were generally shunned by the full-blooded Hebrews. That's why the Samaritan woman said in verse 9, "...for the Jews have no dealings with the Samaritans."– DavidApr 29, 2018 at 13:30