In Genesis 2 and 3, the story-teller (the author) use "LORD" (Yahweh) several times.
To me, the situation by the time the author wrote/tell the story read in Genesis 2 - at least some people live at that time already know/understand that "LORD" name (Yahweh).
Adam made love to his wife Eve, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Cain. She said, "With the help of the LORD I have brought forth a man."
Assuming I'm a literalist, the verse above leads to a conclusion that by the time Eve gave birth to Cain, Eve already knows the name of her God, which is (Yahweh). The sentence Eve said at the time she gave birth to Cain heard like this : "With the help of Yahweh I have brought forth a man."
Seth also had a son, and he named him Enosh. At that time people began to call on the name of the LORD.
My question are :
What does the bold sentence mean in Gen 4:26 ?
(the question appear because it based on the assumption that Eve knows the name when she gave birth to Cain and she didn't keep the name to herself for at least 150 years which is the age of Set when he has his Son, Enosh).
Moses said to God, "Suppose I go to the Israelites and say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they ask me, 'What is his name?' Then what shall I tell them?"
Why did Moses think that the people of Israel at that time did not know the name of their father's God?