Yes, that's what I mean. Please read before downvoting.
Our sister site hosted this question, which tells us that Winston Churchill said the King James Version of the Bible had been translated into 760 languages.
Now this makes some people snigger, since they know that the Bible wasn't written in English and the KJV is an English translation of the original languages.
But was he wrong? It seems likely to me that an English-speaking missionary of a hundred years ago, going to an unreached culture and wanting to provide a Bible in their language, would be most likely to have taken the English Bible they had (probably the KJV) and translated it, rather than starting with the original Hebrew and Greek.
So my actual questions:
- Was it indeed normal practice 100 years ago for English speaking Bible translators in the field to start from the English Bible? Would a typical translator in the field have had a working knowledge of Biblical Hebrew or Greek, and access to the Bible in those languages?
- Would that Bible usually have been the KJV?
- How many Bible translations are likely to have been made by this method? I'm aware that it isn't used now, but when did the change happen, and how many translations would have been made up to that point? I'll include partial translations to be generous to Winston.