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In Mark 4:34 it says:

"He did not say anything to them without using a parable. But when He was alone with his own disciples, he explained everything." (NIV)

My question is this: why did Jesus not share the meanings of the parables with the general population he talked to and only to his disciples?

marked as duplicate by curiousdannii, Nathaniel Sep 30 '17 at 11:19

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • I moved the question to the title. But the edit is under review. Like that it is more obvious that the question is not a duplicate. I think the word "secrecy" triggered their duplicate alarm. – Hjan Oct 1 '17 at 9:40
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    @Hjan A question similar to the new title of this onehas also been asked previously; I've added a link to it above. – Nathaniel Oct 2 '17 at 12:32
  • @Nathaniel, yes that one is really similar, i agree on that. Thanks for taking my comment in to consideration. – Hjan Oct 3 '17 at 12:36