What is the specific biblical factor that makes homosexuality a sin and not heterosexuality? [closed]

Question

There are many commonalities and many differences between homosexual and heterosexual unions. For those who support the Bible basis for homosexuality as a sin, what specifically are the necessary differences between heterosexuality and homosexuality which they would say make one a sin, and not the other?

Is the fact that two people love each other, both spiritually and physically, a significant factor in this decision?

Is procreation a necessary factor? If it is a factor, then could that be offset by a homosexual couple who take care of the children that heterosexuals do not want? Also, if procreation is a factor, then would that mean certain acts by heterosexuals would be sinners as well, if they have sex without attempting to procreate?

Is it possible that the Bible basis that is often supported forgets to account for the context of the passages? Could they possibly be referring to lust instead of only sex, and if so, how would that change the this position?

Does Jesus mention homosexuality in the NT? If it is a sin, would Jesus not have mentioned it specifically?

These are several questions, but they represent common arguments from proponents of homosexuality and are points which are often discussed by Christian opponents of homosexuality. A single answer should be able to sum up the common arguments from the Bible that are commonly given by supporters of that position to answer these questions.

Answer 1

The specific Biblical reason that homosexuality is sin is that the Bible tells us that God specifically created woman to be man's mate. That is specifically God's plan and desire. Sin is anything that violates God's will or command. God's will is for man and woman to be joined together as mates, not for man and man or woman and woman to join. God created men with specific purposes, and God created woman with specific purposes. Those purposes are complimentary.

The OP states "Jesus never mentions homosexuality in the NT." Jesus did specifically state what God's intent is for marriage:

'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'? (Matthew 19:5)

That is God's plan. God fully expects humans to want what he wants and to pursue his desires and not their own desires.

Answer 2

The Church Fathers (Augustine of Hippo, for example) basically thought that the act of creating life is holy, but any libido or sexual pleasure involved is sinful. Therefore, the early Christians were advised to have as few sex acts as possible. To become completely celibate would be the best in terms of spirituality.

In a Catholic/Orthodox point of view, the conscious lust for sexual pleasure leads to sin. The concept of Lust does not differentiate between heterosexual and homosexual desire.

'But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.' (KJV, Matthew 5:28)

Then, there is the spiritual marriage, which is related to the ceremonial marriage we are used to see. According to the Scriptures, marriage is a relationship created to exist between a man and a woman. A definition of homosexual marriage would not match the Bible.

'Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.' (KJV, Genesis 2:24)

Finally, at least exteriorized homosexuals could make Christians to doubt their trust in God. The Catholic/Orthodox Christianity refers to it as Scandal.

'For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.' (KJV, Romans 1:26-27)