Based on the answer to this other question, Mormons believe that Jesus and Jehovah in the Old Testament are one and same person.
Also my understanding is that, based on information such as the answers to this question, that Mormons do not believe in Trinity.
Because of this I wanted to ask about Psalm 110:1 which was referred to by Jesus in Matthew 22:41-45.
I have below listed Psalm 110:1 according to some translations that use the name Jehovah in that passage:
Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Jehovah said unto my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I put thine enemies [as] footstool of thy feet.
Jehovah said to my Lord the Messiah, “Rule as my regent—I will subdue your enemies and make them bow low before you.”
A Psalm of David. The affirmation of Jehovah to my Lord: `Sit at My right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.'
Jesus referred to this scripture when speaking with the Pharisees in Matthew 22:41-45 (The Living Bible):
41 Then, surrounded by the Pharisees, he asked them a question: 42 “What about the Messiah? Whose son is he?” “The son of David,” they replied. 43 “Then why does David, speaking under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, call him ‘Lord’?” Jesus asked. “For David said, 44 ‘God said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies beneath your feet.’ 45 Since David called him ‘Lord,’ how can he be merely his son?”
According to some denominations, Jesus in above question meant that he was the "Lord" that God (or Jehovah, according to above translations) spoke to in verse 44.
How do Mormons interpret these passages, since they believe that Jesus was the same as Jehovah in the Old Testament?