Based on the answer to this other question, Mormons believe that Jesus and Jehovah in the Old Testament are one and same person.

Also my understanding is that, based on information such as the answers to this question, that Mormons do not believe in Trinity.

Because of this I wanted to ask about Psalm 110:1 which was referred to by Jesus in Matthew 22:41-45.

I have below listed Psalm 110:1 according to some translations that use the name Jehovah in that passage:

American Standard Version:

Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

Darby Translation:

Jehovah said unto my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I put thine enemies [as] footstool of thy feet.

Living Bible:

Jehovah said to my Lord the Messiah, “Rule as my regent—I will subdue your enemies and make them bow low before you.”

Young's Literal Translation:

A Psalm of David. The affirmation of Jehovah to my Lord: `Sit at My right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.'

Jesus referred to this scripture when speaking with the Pharisees in Matthew 22:41-45 (The Living Bible):

41 Then, surrounded by the Pharisees, he asked them a question: 42 “What about the Messiah? Whose son is he?” “The son of David,” they replied. 43 “Then why does David, speaking under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, call him ‘Lord’?” Jesus asked. “For David said, 44 ‘God said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies beneath your feet.’ 45 Since David called him ‘Lord,’ how can he be merely his son?”

According to some denominations, Jesus in above question meant that he was the "Lord" that God (or Jehovah, according to above translations) spoke to in verse 44.

How do Mormons interpret these passages, since they believe that Jesus was the same as Jehovah in the Old Testament?


Before going on, note Article of Faith 8 (doesn't necessarily apply to this verse just keep in mind when getting a Mormon's interpretation of a Bible verse):

We believe the Bible to be the word of God as far as it is translated correctly; we also believe the Book of Mormon to be the word of God.

From Psalms 110:1 (KJV on LDS site)

The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

Besides Matthew 22:41-45 this Psalm is also referenced in Acts 2:32-36 and Hebrews 1:13.

The LDS believe that LORD (uppercase) is used in place of printing Jehovah, who we believe to be Jesus Christ, during the translation process. 1,2

Lord (in lowercase) refers to a heavenly ruler but is not a substitute for the name Jehovah. 2

There are at least 3 instances when LORD applies to Heavenly Father, not Jesus Christ and this verse is one of them. 2 ftnt 3 So the verse is really saying:

The LORD [Heavenly Father] said unto my Lord [Adona/pre-incarnate Son], Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

So in Matthew Jesus is showing that he understands 'the LORD' refers to Heavenly Father and 'my Lord' refers to the Son of God and Messiah. 3

Acts 2:36 also backs this up

Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

1 The Living Christ

2 2002 Ensign article

footnote 3:

In at least three Old Testament passages it appears that LORD applies to Heavenly Father, not Jesus Christ: Ps. 110:1; Ps. 2:7; Isa. 53:10

3 Names of God in OT article- highly recommend for a much better in-depth explanation, you can start half way down where it talks specifically about Psalm 110

Abinadi on the Father and Son mentions the Acts2:36 reference to the Psalm

  • thanks @depperm! So are you saying that Psalm 110:1 is a case of Heavenly Father speaking to Jesus pre-incarnate (i.e. before he came to earth)? Also is "Heavenly Father" same as "God" for Mormons? – SherlockEinstein Jun 24 '17 at 3:42
  • 1
    @SherlockEinstein yes to both points – depperm Jun 24 '17 at 17:51
  • As of today, the footnote 2 link to a 2002 ensign article points to the table of contents. The "LORD = Jehovah" title on that page links to the right article. This looks like a website update issue which probably should be repaired on the website. – Bit Chaser Oct 30 '19 at 15:23
  • It might be worthwhile to explicitly quote your "2 ftn 3": "In at least three Old Testament passages it appears that LORD applies to Heavenly Father, not Jesus Christ: Ps. 110:1; Ps. 2:7; Isa. 53:10." since this is the only place I see an LDS statement about that. Your ref 3 is very interesting, but speaks from a non-LDS point of view. – Bit Chaser Oct 30 '19 at 15:41
  • @disciple fixed my link and added quote, thanks for your comment – depperm Oct 30 '19 at 16:21

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