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I was wondering about the question of 'How has the society become to be monogamous?' when I saw on Wikipedia (Polygamy) that Christianity seems to be the only religion that says clearly that we should be monogamous.

I saw this quote of Matthew 19:5: 'and said, "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh,"' which seems to explicitly tell us that we should be monogamous

My questions are:

  • How preponderant was this little sentence in establishing our current vision of a modern, non-polygamous society?
  • Is this quote the one thing that made human societies be polygamous, or is this too broad or complex a question to be answered here?

Note that (I quote Wikipedia): 'In 2000, the United Nations Human Rights Committee reported that polygamy violates the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)'

closed as off-topic by bruised reed, Lee Woofenden, curiousdannii, Andrew, KorvinStarmast May 31 '17 at 4:20

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "General philosophical or sociological questions are off-topic unless clearly asking for a doctrinal answer. See: On-topic and constructive examples." – bruised reed, Andrew, KorvinStarmast
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    Even though you are asking about the influence of Christianity, you are actually asking a general history question here, and for that reason you should ask it on history.se. For what it's worth, it doesn't stack up - East Asian societites have developed to be largely monogamous with little to no (ancient) historical Christian influence. – bruised reed May 30 '17 at 21:44