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verse-A (Romans 5:12)

Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all sinned

verse-B (Romans 5:10)

For if, while we were God's enemies, we were reconciled to him through the death of his Son, how much more, having been reconciled, shall we be saved through his life!

The word [death] in the two verses above in Greek is [thanatos].

In verse-A, it seems many Christian interpretation of the word [death] there is a spiritual-dead condition.

But if I go consistent, then it sounds weird if [the death of his Son] means spiritual-dead in verse-B. I think it's most likely means [physical-dead] in verse-B.


on the other hand :

verse-C (Matthew 28:7)

And go quickly and tell His disciples that He is risen from the dead

verse-D (Ephesians 2:5)

even though we were dead because of our sins

The word [dead] in the two verses above in Greek is [nekrous].

In verse-C, logically the word [dead] means physical-dead. But if I go consistent with this, then it sounds weird if [we were dead] means [we have been physically-dead] in verse-D. I think it's most likely means [spiritually-dead] in verse-D.


I've tried to think like this :
the word [thanatos] in verse-A and the word [nekrous] in verse-C is about future time, which is [a second death, physically].

So, if there is no Jesus - the next generation will taste the second death at the end of times because all sinned. (verse-A).

If there is no Jesus, we will taste the second death at the end of times because of our sins (verse-D).

But of course is only logical not biblical :).
So, how is the correct way to understand a verse like those above according to the Calvinist ?

Thank you in advanced.

  • 3
    This is probably better for hermeneutics.se – jlaverde Apr 26 '17 at 14:44
  • @jlaverde, I will wait for a few days if there is an answer here. If not I will move this question to hermeneutics.se as your suggestion. Thank you. – karma Apr 28 '17 at 7:54

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