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I get the idea that Greek thinking had a mind-body distinction. What I'm driving at is the label and origin of that distinction.

I get that Plato had an idea of objective reality - where he described the 'ideal horse' - that existed in objective reality, and reality had 'instances' of the ideal horse.

In 1 Cor 6 - we see the idea of the mind body distinction. For this reason, the argument by the Corinthians is that what they do with their bodies doesn't matter - because they are living in a spiritual reality. Paul's response is that the body does matter because the resurrection is about physical bodies. (Also that you wouldn't take the members of Christ's body and unite them with a prostitute.)

My question is: Is it the idea of Platonism that describes the mind-body distinction in 1 Cor 6?

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The idea is being brought up by Paul indirectly, and as you point out, Paul is arguing against it fervently. The mind/body distinction is a stepping stone towards Gnosticism and also has serious problems with God creating a good world (creation), and God loving and caring for this world and commanding us to care and love this world. (ie the first commission to Adam and Eve back in Genesis)

Paul is basically responding to the doctrine of the Corinthians becoming more Romanized; the Corinthians were explicitly bringing up flavors of that idea in their letters to him.

Careful reading of both the corinthian letters seems to suggest the Corinthian believers were being swayed by the modern Greco-Roman philosophies.

As an aside, deeper reading on the Hebrew notion of soul would render this idea of mind/body/spirit as a holistic motion, regarding the whole being or self rather than focusing on the individual parts (body/mind/heart/spirit/etc.). I would go so far as to say that Jews and early Christians weren't concerned with these splits, but that in the 2nd century these new ideas just took hold of people's minds.

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