Why is the Prayer of Manasseh considered apocryphal by Jews, Catholics and Protestants?
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2What research have you done on this topic?– KorvinStarmastCommented Feb 22, 2017 at 21:40
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@KorvinStarmast if I'm honest I'm just being lazy asking the question here.– DavidCommented Feb 22, 2017 at 21:42
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David, if you do a bit more research and still have some questions, you can edit the question to be more precise on what is puzzling you and get a good, scoped answer.– KorvinStarmastCommented Feb 22, 2017 at 21:43
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@KorvinStarmast understood– DavidCommented Feb 22, 2017 at 21:44
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It actually was included in the original 1611 King James Bible. It was taken out of it in 1885.– guest37Commented Feb 22, 2017 at 22:39
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1 Answer
The prayer departs from Christian teaching in that it says men such as Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob did not need to repent because they “did not sin” (verse 8). This runs counter to the clear teaching of Scripture that all have sinned (Romans 3:10-12; Romans 3:21-26). The righteousness of Abraham was a product of his faith in God and was not anything inherent in him (Romans 4:3; Philippians 3:8-9).
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This explanation is completely bogus. The word in the Septuagint for "sin" in this particular verse is ἁμαρτάνω, which can also simply mean to do wrong. Further, if Manasseh was removed on this basis alone, then the Gospel of John should have been removed as well because Christ said in 9:3 than neither the blind man nor his parents had sinned. I think we need some source more authoritative than "gotquestions.org" here.– guest37Commented Mar 3, 2017 at 6:31
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1@user33515 a fine and fair point Sir! I have revoked my own accepted answer...please feel free to post an answer.– DavidCommented Mar 3, 2017 at 21:55
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See Matthew 9:13; Mark 2:17; Luke 5:32.– user46876Commented Nov 5, 2019 at 12:12